Latest Microsoft 365 Exam Practice Questions, MS-100, MS-200, MS-201, MS-500 Exam Tips For Free

Latest Microsoft 365 Exam Practice Questions, MS-100, MS-200, MS-201, MS-500 Exam Tips For Free

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Table of Contents:

Latest Microsoft 365 Exam questions

Microsoft 365

Latest Microsoft MS-100 List

Microsoft MS-100 Exam Video

Exam MS-100: Microsoft 365 Identity and Services: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/ms-100

Candidates for this exam are Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrators who take part in evaluating, planning, migrating, deploying, and managing Microsoft 365 services. They perform Microsoft 365 tenant management tasks for an enterprise, including its identities, security, compliance, and supporting technologies.

Candidates have a working knowledge of Microsoft 365 workloads and should have been an administrator for at least one Microsoft 365 workload (Exchange, SharePoint, Skype for Business, or Windows as a Service). Candidates also have a working knowledge of networking, server administration, and IT fundamentals such as DNS, Active Directory, and PowerShell.

Skills measured

  • NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured in the document below are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.
  • Design and implement Microsoft 365 services (25-30%)
  • Manage user identity and roles (35-40%)
  • Manage access and authentication (20-25%)
  • Plan Office 365 workloads and applications (10-15%)

Latest updates Microsoft MS-100 exam practice questions(1-10)

QUESTION 1

You need to add the custom domain names to Office 365 to support the planned changes as quickly as possible. What

should you create to verify the domain names successfully? 

A. three alias (CNAME) records 

B. one text (TXT) record 

C. one alias (CNAME) record 

D. three text (TXT) records 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 2

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains

a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,

while 

others might not have a correct solution. 

After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not

appear in the review screen. 

You need to assign User2 the required roles to meet the security requirements. 

Solution: From the Office 365 admin center, you assign User2 the Security Reader role. From the Exchange admin

center, you assign User2 the Compliance Management role. 

Does this meet the goal? 

A. Yes 

B. No 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 3

You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. 

You add an app named App1 to the enterprise applications in contoso.com. 

You need to configure self-service for App1. 

What should you do first? 

A. Assign App1 to users and groups. 

B. Add an owner to App1. 

C. Configure the provisioning mode for App1. 

D. Configure an SSO method for App1. 

Correct Answer: A 

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/manage-apps/manage-self-service-access 

QUESTION 4

Your company has offices in several cities and 100,000 users. 

The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. 

You purchase Microsoft 365 and plan to deploy several Microsoft 365 services. 

You are evaluating the implementation of pass-through authentication and seamless SSO. Azure AD Connect will NOT

be in staging mode. 

You need to identify the redundancy limits for the planned implementation. 

What should you identify? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. 

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. 

Hot Area:leads4pass ms-100 exam question q4

Correct Answer:

leads4pass ms-100 exam question q4-1

QUESTION 5
Your company has a main office and 20 branch offices in North America and Europe. Each branch office connects to
the main office by using a WAN link. All the offices connect to the Internet and resolve external host names by using the
main office connections.
You plan to deploy Microsoft 365 and to implement a direct Internet connection in each office.
You need to recommend a change to the infrastructure to provide the quickest possible access to Microsoft 365
services.
What is the best recommendation to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the
BEST answer.
A. For all the client computers in the branch offices, modify the MTU setting by using a Group Policy object (GPO).
B. In each branch office, deploy a proxy server that has user authentication enabled.
C. In each branch office, deploy a firewall that has packet inspection enabled.
D. In each branch office, configure name resolution so that all external hosts are redirected to public DNS servers
directly.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Your company has on-premises servers and a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant.
Several months ago, the Azure AD Connect Health agent was installed on all the servers.
You review the health status of all the servers regularly.
Recently, you attempted to view the health status of a server named Server1 and discovered that the server is NOT
listed on the Azure Active Directory Connect Servers list.
You suspect that another administrator removed Server1 from the list.
You need to ensure that you can view the health status of Server1.
What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. From Windows PowerShell, run the Register-AzureADConnectHealthSyncAgent cmdlet.
B. From Azure Cloud shell, run the Connect-AzureAD cmdlet.
C. From Server1, change the Azure AD Connect Health services Startup type to Automatic (Delayed Start).
D. From Server1, change the Azure AD Connect Health services Startup type to Automatic.
E. From Server1, reinstall the Azure AD Connect Health agent.
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You need to assign User2 the required roles to meet the security requirements.
Solution: From the Office 365 admin center, you assign User2 the Security Administrator role. From the Exchange
admin center, you add User2 to the View-Only Organization Management role.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Which role should you assign to User1?
A. Security Administrator
B. Records Management
C. Security Reader
D. Hygiene Management
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named adatum.local. The forest contains 500 users and uses
adatum.com as a UPN suffix.
You deploy a Microsoft 365 tenant.
You implement directory synchronization and sync only 50 support users.
You discover that five of the synchronized users have usernames that use a UPN suffix of onmicrosoft.com.
You need to ensure that all synchronized identities retain the UPN set in their on-premises user account.
What should you do?
A. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, add adatum.com as a custom domain name.
B. From Windows PowerShell, run the Set-ADDomain ?llowedDNSSuffixes adatum.com command.
C. From Active Directory Users and Computers, modify the UPN suffix of the five user accounts.
D. From the Microsoft 365 admin center, add adatum.local as a custom domain name.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You plan to move several archived PST files to Microsoft Exchange Online mailboxes.
You need to create an import job for the PST files.
Which three actions should you perform before you create the import job? Each correct answer presents part of the
solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a Microsoft Azure Storage account.
B. From Security and Compliance, retrieve the SAS key.
C. Run azcopy.exe to copy the PST files to Microsoft Azure Storage
D. Use Microsoft Azure Storage Explorer to copy the PST files to Azure Storage.
E. Create a PST import mapping file.
Correct Answer: BCE
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/use-network-upload-to-import-pst-files

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Latest Microsoft MS-200 List

Microsoft MS-200 Exam Video

Exam MS-200: Planning and Configuring a Messaging Platform: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/ms-200

Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions, mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments.

Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.

Messaging Administrators collaborate with the Security Administrator and Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid topology that meets the business needs of a modern organization.

The Messaging Administrator should have a working knowledge of authentication types, licensing, and integration with Microsoft 365 applications.

Skills measured

  • NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured in the document below are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.
  • Manage modern messaging infrastructure (45-50%)
  • Manage mail flow topology (35-40%)
  • Manage recipients and devices (15-20%)

Latest updates Microsoft MS-200 exam practice questions (1-10)

QUESTION 1
Your network contains an Active Directory forest. The forest contains two Active Directory sites named Site1 and Site2.
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains a database availability group (DAG) named
DAG1. DAG1 has three member servers in each site.
You need to prevent users from Site1 from sending email messages larger than 5 MB to the mailboxes in Site2.
What should you do?
A. Modify the properties of the Active Directory site link.
B. From Site1, create a custom Send connector, and then modify the address space.
C. From Site2, create a custom Receive connector, and then modify the remote IP address range.
D. Modify the properties of DAG1.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You need to recommend a load balancing solution for the client connections that must be created to meet the disaster
recovery requirements. What should you recommend?
A. Deploy a Layer 7 load balancing solution.
B. Deploy a Layer 4 load balancing solution.
C. Implement Network Load Balancing (NLB) on each Exchange server.
D. Implement DNS load balancing for all the Exchange-related DNS records and implement round robin for DNS name
resolution.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/architecture/client-access/load-balancing?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains two Mailbox servers as shown in the following
table.

leads4pass ms-200 exam question q3

EX01 fails. You do not know how long it will take to recover EX01.
You need to provide all affected users with the ability to send and receive email as quickly as possible.
How should you complete the PowerShell script? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each
value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to
view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

leads4pass ms-200 exam question q3-1

Correct Answer:

leads4pass ms-200 exam question q3-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/high-availability/disaster-recovery/dial-tone-recovery?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
After you deploy the Exchange organization, you run the Get-ActiveSyncDeviceAccessRule cmdlet, and you receive the
following output.leads4pass ms-200 exam question q4

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

leads4pass ms-200 exam question q4-1

Correct Answer:

leads4pass ms-200 exam question q4-2

The rule is incorrectly configured so nothing will be blocked. The QueryString parameter specifies the device identifier
that\\’s used by the rule, not the software.

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server named EX01. EX01 has the default Receive connectors.
EX01 receives Internet email on port 25 from an appliance in the company\\’s perimeter network.
The company has an application named App1 that can only send email on port 25. The application administrator
requests that you enable App1 to route email through EX01 for delivery.
You need to ensure that EX01 only accepts email from the appliance and App1.
Solution: You create a new remote domain and set the domain name to App1. You create a new delivery agent
connector and set the IsScopedConnector property to $true.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
You need to recommend a solution for the Audits and Notes folders.
What should you include in the recommendation? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:leads4pass ms-200 exam question q6

Correct Answer:

leads4pass ms-200 exam question q6-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/policy-and-compliance/mrm/retention-tags-and-retention-policies?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Online subscription that contains the groups shown in the following table.leads4pass ms-200 exam question q7

You have the recipients shown in the following table.

leads4pass ms-200 exam question q7-1

The groups contain the members shown in the following table.

leads4pass ms-200 exam question q7-2

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

leads4pass ms-200 exam question q7-3

Correct Answer:

leads4pass ms-200 exam question q7-4

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/admin/manage/upgrade-distribution-lists?view=o365-worldwide#which-distribution-lists-can-be-upgraded

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server named EX01. EX01 has the default Receive connectors.
EX01 receives Internet email on port 25 from an appliance in the company\\’s perimeter network.
The company has an application named App1 that can only send email on port 25. The application administrator
requests that you enable App1 to route email through EX01 for delivery.
You need to ensure that EX01 only accepts email from the appliance and App1.
Solution: You add a second IP address to EX01. You create a new linked connector named App1 EX01.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mail-flow/mail-routing/mail-routing?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
A user named User1 left the organization 10 days ago.
You need to purge all the email data of User1.
How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:leads4pass ms-200 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

leads4pass ms-200 exam question q9-1

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/recipients/disconnected-mailboxes/permanently-delete-mailboxes?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 10
You are deploying Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 to two data centers.
You need to protect all mailbox content against database corruption. The solution must minimize the recovery time
objective (RTO) and the recovery point objective (RPO).
What is the best way to achieve the goal? More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST
answer.
A. a recovery database
B. a lagged database copy
C. PST files
Correct Answer: B

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Latest Microsoft MS-201 List

Microsoft MS-201 Exam Video

Exam MS-201 – Microsoft Docs: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/ms-201

Candidates for this exam are Messaging Administrators who deploy, configure, manage, troubleshoot, and monitor recipients, permissions, mail protection, mail flow, and public folders in both on-premises and cloud enterprise environments.

Messaging Administrators are responsible for managing hygiene, messaging infrastructure, hybrid configuration, migration, disaster recovery, high availability, and client access.

Messaging Administrators collaborate with the Security Administrator and Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator to implement a secure hybrid topology that meets the business needs of a modern organization.

The Messaging Administrator should have a working knowledge of authentication types, licensing, and integration with Microsoft 365 applications.

Skills measured

  • NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured in the document below are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.
  • Plan and implement a hybrid configuration and migration (35-40%)
  • Secure the messaging environment (40-45%)
  • Manage organizational settings (15-20%)

Latest updates Microsoft MS-201 exam practice questions (1-10)

QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that uses a domain named contoso.com.
You need to ensure that when a new user mailbox is created, the email address of the mailbox uses the format shown
in the following table.leads4pass ms-201 exam question q1

How should you complete the PowerShell script? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE:
Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

leads4pass ms-201 exam question q1-1

Correct Answer:

leads4pass ms-201 exam question q1-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/email-addresses-and-address-books/email-address-policies/email-address-policies?view=exchserver-2019#address-formats

QUESTION 2
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment. You plan to enable Hybrid Modern Authentication
(HMA). You run the Get-MapiVirtualDirectory cmdlet and receive the output shown in the following exhibit.leads4pass ms-201 exam question q2

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

leads4pass ms-201 exam question q2-1

Correct Answer:

leads4pass ms-201 exam question q2-2

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/enterprise/configure-exchange-server-for-hybridmodernauthentication

QUESTION 3
Case Study : Litware,Inc.
Case Study
Overview
Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe.
PhysicalLocations
Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome.
Each branch office has its own compliance officer.
ExistingEnvironment
The network contains one Active Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory
domain. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU)
in an
OU named Offices in Active Directory.
Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office. Each
Administrators group is named based on its location in a format of RegionalAdmins_Brussels,
RegionalAdmins_Munich,
RegionalAdmins_London, RegionalAdmins_Vienna and RegionalAdmins_Rome.
NetworkInfrastructure
Each office contains two domain controllers from the litware.com domain. All the domain controllers are configured as
DNS servers. All client computers connect only to the DNS servers in their respective office.
All offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. Each office connects to the Internet by using a VPN appliance.
Each office has the following servers and client computers:
One reverse proxy appliance
One Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server
One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server
Computers that run Windows 10 and have Microsoft Office 2019 installed. The office in Brussels contains an Exchange
Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed and hosted voicemail configured.
Mailboxes are hosted on all the Exchange servers. Public folders are hosted only on an Exchange server in the main
office. Litware uses a disjoint namespace to access the servers. Each user has an archive mailbox. Archiving is
configured
to use the default settings. Exchange services are published to the internet by using a reverse proxy in each office. A full
backup of Exchange is performed nightly. Incremental backups occur every six hours. All the users in the transport
department connect to network resources by using a connection in the main office.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Litware plans to implement the following changes:
Implement calendar sharing to partner companies.
Implement a solution that prevents malware from being delivered to end users. Use personal archives to eliminate the
need for PST files. Ensure the Brussels office and move all the users in the Brussels office to the main office. All the
mailboxes in the Brussels office will be moved to a server in the main office. Implement a compliance solution to ensure
that items deleted from public folders are retained. If an item in a public folder is modified, the original version of the
item
must be available.
TechnicalRequirements
Litware identifies the following technical requirements:
Minimize administrative effort.
Use the principle of least privilege.
Ensure that junk email is deleted automatically after 14 days. Ensure that sent items and deleted items are deleted
automatically after 30 days. Ensure that users in the customer service department can open multiple mailboxes. Ensure
that
all the former Brussels office users always maintain access to hosted voicemail. Ensure that the staff in the IT
department can manage the email environment without and-user involvement.
Ensure that users cannot recover email messages that are deleted from the Junk Email folder and the Deleted Items.
Ensure that if an email message has a spam confidence level (SCL) of 3 or higher, the message automatically moves to
the Junk Email folder.
Problemstatements
The transport department users report that accessing a public folder named TransportPF is sometimes very slow.
Users in the customer service department report that Microsoft Outlook sometimes hangs when many mailboxes are
open.
You need to implement a solution that meets the technical requirements for the retention of junk email, sent items, and
deleted items.
What is the minimum number of retention policies and retention tags you should use? To answer, select the appropriate
options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:leads4pass ms-201 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

leads4pass ms-201 exam question q3-1

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains the Mailbox servers shown in the following
table.leads4pass ms-201 exam question q4

The organization contains the mailboxes shown in the following table.

leads4pass ms-201 exam question q4-1

You create the public folder mailboxes shown in the following table.

leads4pass ms-201 exam question q4-2

You set the DefaultPublicFolderMailbox property of each user mailbox to the public folder mailbox closest to the user.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

leads4pass ms-201 exam question q4-3

Correct Answer:

leads4pass ms-201 exam question q4-4

References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/collaboration/public-folders/publicfolders?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 5
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that has the mailboxes shown in the following table.leads4pass ms-201 exam question q5

You have the distribution groups shown in the following table.

leads4pass ms-201 exam question q5-1

Email messages sent within the organization are shown in the following table.

leads4pass ms-201 exam question q5-2

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statements is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

leads4pass ms-201 exam question q5-3

Correct Answer:

leads4pass ms-201 exam question q5-4

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/policy-andcompliance/ediscovery/ediscovery?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 6
Overview
General Overview
Contoso, Ltd. is a national freight company in the United States. The company has 15,000 employees.
PhysicalLocations
Contoso has a main office in Houston and 10 branch offices that each contains 1,000 employees.
ExistingEnvironment
Active Directory and Microsoft Exchange Server Environments The network contains an Active Directory forest named
contoso.com. The forest contains one root domain named contoso.com and 10 child domains. All domain controllers
run
Windows Server 2019.
The forest has Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) and Active Directory Federation Services (AD FS)
deployed.
You have a hybrid deployment of Exchange Server 2019 and Microsoft Office 365.
There are 2,000 user mailboxes in Exchange Online.
Each office contains two domain controllers and two Mailbox servers. the main office also contains an Edge transport
server.
The organization contains 100 public folders. The folders contain 80 GB of content. All email messages sent to
contoso.com are delivered to Exchange Online. All messages sent to onpremises mailboxes are routed through the
Edge
Transport server. Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) is enabled and configured for the Office 365 tenant.
NetworkInfrastructure
Each office connects directly to the Internet by using a local connection. The offices connect to each other by using a
WAN link.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Contoso plans to implement the following changes:
1.
or all new users in the on-premises organization, provide an email address that uses the value of the Last Name
attribute and the first two letters of the First Name attribute as a prefix.
2.
ecommission the public folders and replace the folders with a Microsoft 265 solution that maintains web access to the
content.
Technical Requirements
Contoso identifies the following technical requirements:
1.
All email messages sent from a SMTP domain named adatum.com must never be identified as spam.
2.
Any solution to replace the public folders must include the ability to collaborate with shared calendars.
Security Requirements
Contoso identifies the following security requirements:
1.
The principle of least privilege must be applied to all users and permissions.
2.
All email messages sent from an SMTP domain named com to contoso.com must be encrypted.
3.
All users must be protected from accessing unsecure websites when they click on URLs embedded in email messages.
4.
If a user attempts to send an email message to a distribution group that contains more than 15 members by using
Outlook, the user must receive a warning before sending the message.
Problemstatements Recently, a user named HelpdeskUser1 erroneously created several mailboxes. Helpdesk1user1 is
a member of the Recipient Management management role group. Users who have a mailbox in office 365 report that it
takes a long time for email messages containing attachments to be delivered.
Exhibitleads4pass ms-201 exam question q6

HOTSPOT
You need to configure the environment to support the planned changes for email addresses. How should you complete
the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

leads4pass ms-201 exam question q6-1

Correct Answer:

leads4pass ms-201 exam question q6-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/email-addresses-and-addressbooks/new-emailaddresspolicy?view=exchange-ps https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/Exchange/email-addresses-and-address-books/email-addresspolicies/email-address-policies?view=exchserver-2019

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this scenario, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment that contains two Mailbox servers named
MBX1 and MBX2.
The company has the departments shown in the following table.leads4pass ms-201 exam question q7

From the on-premises organization, outbound email is sent directly to the internet by using DNS lookups. You are
informed that some sales department users send email messages that are identified as spam. You need to
automatically block the sales department users from repeatedly sending spam.
Solution: You migrate all the mailboxes of the sales department to Exchange Online. Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You need to prevent credit card information from being emailed outside of the organization. Users must be informed of
any potential breaches before sending email.
What should you create?
A. a journal rule
B. a retention policy
C. a retention tag
D. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/data-loss-prevention-policies

QUESTION 9
Case Study : Litware,Inc.
Case Study
Overview
Litware, Inc. is food service supplier in Europe.
PhysicalLocations
Litware has a main office in Paris and branch offices in Munich, London, Brussels, Vienna, and Rome.
Each branch office has its own compliance officer.
ExistingEnvironment
The network contains one Active Directory forest named litware.com. The forest contains a single Active Directory
domain. Each office is configured as an Active Directory site. Each branch office is represented organizational unit (OU)
in an
OU named Offices in Active Directory.
Each branch office has a special Administrators group that contains the delegated administrators for that office. Each
Administrators group is named based on its location in a format of RegionalAdmins_Brussels,
RegionalAdmins_Munich,
RegionalAdmins_London, RegionalAdmins_Vienna and RegionalAdmins_Rome.
NetworkInfrastructure
Each office contains two domain controllers from the litware.com domain. All the domain controllers are configured as
DNS servers. All client computers connect only to the DNS servers in their respective office.
All offices have a high-speed connection to the Internet. Each office connects to the Internet by using a VPN appliance.
Each office has the following servers and client computers:
One reverse proxy appliance
One Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 server
One Windows Server Update Services (WSUS) server
Computers that run Windows 10 and have Microsoft Office 2019 installed. The office in Brussels contains an Exchange
Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed and hosted voicemail configured.
Mailboxes are hosted on all the Exchange servers. Public folders are hosted only on an Exchange server in the main
office. Litware uses a disjoint namespace to access the servers. Each user has an archive mailbox. Archiving is
configured
to use the default settings. Exchange services are published to the internet by using a reverse proxy in each office. A full
backup of Exchange is performed nightly. Incremental backups occur every six hours. All the users in the transport
department connect to network resources by using a connection in the main office.
Requirements
Planned Changes
Litware plans to implement the following changes:
Implement calendar sharing to partner companies.
Implement a solution that prevents malware from being delivered to end users. Use personal archives to eliminate the
need for PST files. Ensure the Brussels office and move all the users in the Brussels office to the main office. All the
mailboxes in the Brussels office will be moved to a server in the main office. Implement a compliance solution to ensure
that items deleted from public folders are retained. If an item in a public folder is modified, the original version of the
item
must be available.
TechnicalRequirements
Litware identifies the following technical requirements:
Minimize administrative effort.
Use the principle of least privilege.
Ensure that junk email is deleted automatically after 14 days. Ensure that sent items and deleted items are deleted
automatically after 30 days. Ensure that users in the customer service department can open multiple mailboxes. Ensure
that
all the former Brussels office users always maintain access to hosted voicemail. Ensure that the staff in the IT
department can manage the email environment without and-user involvement.
Ensure that users cannot recover email messages that are deleted from the Junk Email folder and the Deleted Items.
Ensure that if an email message has a spam confidence level (SCL) of 3 or higher, the message automatically moves to
the Junk Email folder.
Problemstatements
The transport department users report that accessing a public folder named TransportPF is sometimes very slow.
Users in the customer service department report that Microsoft Outlook sometimes hangs when many mailboxes are
open.
You need to resolve the issue for the customer service department users.
What should you modify?
A. a transport rule
B. the Send connector to the Internet
C. the tarpit interval
D. the global throttling policy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization and a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription. From the Microsoft 365
admin center, you open Data migration as shown in the following exhibit.leads4pass ms-201 exam question q10

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

leads4pass ms-201 exam question q10-1

Correct Answer: 

leads4pass ms-201 exam question q10-2

References:
https://www.stellarinfo.com/blog/hybrid-migration-migrate-exchange-mailboxes-office-365/
https://www.kerneldatarecovery.com/blog/migrate-from-exchange-on-premises-to-exchangeonlinein-hybrid-environment/

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Latest Microsoft MS-500 List

Microsoft MS-500 Exam Video

Exam MS-500: Microsoft 365 Security Administration:https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/ms-500

Candidates for this exam implement, manage, and monitor security and compliance solutions for Microsoft 365 and hybrid environments. The Microsoft 365 Security Administrator proactively secures Microsoft 365 enterprise environments, responds to threats, performs investigations, and enforces data governance. The Microsoft 365 Security Administrator collaborates with the Microsoft 365 Enterprise Administrator, business stakeholders, and other workload administrators to plan and implement security strategies and ensures that the solutions comply with the policies and regulations of the organization.

Candidates for this exam are familiar with Microsoft 365 workloads and have strong skills and experience with identity protection, information protection, threat protection, security management, and data governance. This role focuses on the Microsoft 365 environment and includes hybrid environments.

Skills measured

  • NOTE: The bullets that appear below each of the skills measured in the document below are intended to illustrate how we are assessing that skill. This list is not definitive or exhaustive.
  • Implement and manage identity and access (30-35%)
  • Implement and manage threat protection (20-25%)
  • Implement and manage information protection (15-20%)
  • Manage governance and compliance features in Microsoft 365 (25-30%)

Latest updates Microsoft MS-500 exam practice questions (1-10)

QUESTION 1
You are evaluating which finance department users will be prompted for Azure MFA credentials. For each of the
following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth
one point.
Hot Area:leads4pass ms-500 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

leads4pass ms-500 exam question q1-1

QUESTION 2
What should User6 use to meet the technical requirements?
A. Supervision in the Security and Compliance admin center
B. Service requests in the Microsoft 365 admin center
C. Security and privacy in the Microsoft 365 admin center
D. Data subject requests in the Security and Compliance admin center
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
A customer requests that you provide her with all documents that reference her by name.
You need to provide the customer with a copy of the content.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:leads4pass ms-500 exam question q3

Correct Answer:

leads4pass ms-500 exam question q3-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/gdpr-dsr-office365

QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You are creating a retention policy named Retention1 as shown in the following exhibit.leads4pass ms-500 exam question q4

You apply Retention1 to SharePoint sites and OneDrive accounts. 
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. 
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. 

Hot Area:

leads4pass ms-500 exam question q4-1

Correct Answer:

leads4pass ms-500 exam question q4-2

QUESTION 5
Which IP address space should you include in the MFA configuration?
A. 131.107.83.0/28
B. 192.168.16.0/20
C. 172.16.0.0/24
D. 192.168.0.0/20
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
Some users access Microsoft SharePoint Online from unmanaged devices.
You need to prevent the users from downloading, printing, and synching files.
What should you do?
A. Run the Set-SPODataConnectionSetting cmdlet and specify the AssignmentCollection parameter
B. From the SharePoint admin center, configure the Access control settings
C. From the Microsoft Azure portal, create an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) Identity Protection sign-in risk policy
D. From the Microsoft Azure portal, create an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) conditional access policy
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to create data loss prevention (DLP) queries in Microsoft SharePoint Online to find sensitive data stored in
sites.
Which type of site collection should you create first?
A. Records Center
B. Compliance Policy Center
C. eDiscovery Center
D. Enterprise Search Center
E. Document Center
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://support.office.com/en-us/article/overview-of-data-loss-prevention-in-sharepoint-server-2016-80f907bb-b944-448d-b83d-8fec4abcc24c

QUESTION 8
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You have a site collection named SiteCollection1 that contains a site named Site2. Site2 contains a document library
named Customers.
Customers contains a document named Litware.docx. You need to remove Litware.docx permanently.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:leads4pass ms-500 exam question q8

Correct Answer:

leads4pass ms-500 exam question q8-1

QUESTION 9
Your company uses Microsoft Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP).
You enable the delayed deployment of updates for an Azure ATP sensor named Sensor1.
How long after the Azure ATP cloud service is updated will Sensor1 be updated?
A. 7 days
B. 24 hours
C. 1 hour
D. 48 hours
E. 12 hours
Correct Answer: B
Note: The delay period was 24 hours. In ATP release 2.62, the 24 hour delay period has been increased to 72 hours.

QUESTION 10
Which role should you assign to User1?
A. Global administrator
B. User administrator
C. Privileged role administrator
D. Security administrator
Correct Answer: C

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Microsoft 70-744 exam “Securing Windows Server 2016”.
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Exam 70-744: Securing Windows Server 2016: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/certifications/exams/70-744

Candidates for this exam secure Windows Server 2016 environments. Candidates are familiar with the methods and technologies used to harden server environments and secure virtual machine infrastructures using Shielded and encryption-supported virtual machines and Guarded Fabric.

Candidates manage the protection of Active Directory and Identity infrastructures and manage privileged identities using Just in Time (JIT) and Just Enough Administration (JEA) approaches, as well as implement Privileged Access Workstations (PAWs) and secure servers using the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS).

Candidates should also be able to use threat detection solutions such as auditing access, implementing Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA), deploying Operations Management Suite (OMS) solutions, and identifying solutions for specific workloads.

Skills measured Microsoft 2020

  • Implement Server Hardening Solutions (25-30%)
  • Secure a Virtualization Infrastructure (5-10%)
  • Secure a Network Infrastructure (10-15%)
  • Manage Privileged Identities (25-30%)
  • Implement Threat Detection Solutions (15-20%)
  • Implement Workload-Specific Security (5-10%)

Latest Updates Microsoft 70-744 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1

You have a Host Guardian Service (HGS) and a guarded host.
You have a VHDX file that contains an image of Windows Server 2016.
You need to provision a virtual machine by using a shielded template.
Which three files should you create? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. a TPM baseline policy file
B. a TPM identifier file
C. a shielding data .pdk file
D. a signature for the .vhdx file
E. an unattended.xml file

Correct Answer: CDE

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/security/guarded-fabric-shielded-vm/guarded-fabric-create-a-shieldedvm-template https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/security/guarded-fabric-shielded-vm/guarded-fabrictenantcreates-shielding-data

QUESTION 2

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a server named Server1
that runs Windows Server 2016.
You deploy Advanced Threat Analytics (ATA) to Server 1.
you need to move the ATA database to a different folder.
A. Config.json
B. Config.xml
C. Mongod.cfg
D. Web.config

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3

The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains the servers configured as
shown in the following table.

examscode 70-744 q3

All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10 and are domain members.
All laptops are protected by using BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker). You have an organizational unit (OU) named
OU1 that contains the computer accounts of application servers.
An OU named OU2 contains the computer accounts of computers in the marketing department.
A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to OU1.
A GPO named GP2 is linked to OU2.
All computers receive updates from Server1.
You create an update rule named Update1.
You need to ensure that AppLocker rules will apply to the marketing department computers. What should you do?
A. From the properties of OU2, modify the Security settings.
B. In GP2, configure the Startup type for the Application Identity service.
C. From the properties of OU2, modify the COM+ partition Set
D. In GP2, configure the Startup type for the Application Management service.

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows/device-security/applocker/configure-the-application-identity-service Because
AppLocker uses this service “Application Identity” to verify the attributes of a file, you must configure it to start
automatically in at least one Group Policy object (GPO) that applies AppLocker rules.

QUESTION 4

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one
correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in these sections, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear on the review screen.
You deploy Windows Server 2016 to a server named Server1. You need to ensure that you can run Windows Containers on Server1.
Solution: On Server1, you enable the Containers feature, and then you restart the server.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

You have a Hyper-V host named Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016. Server1 has a generation 2 virtual machine
named VM1 that runs Windows 10.
You need to ensure that you can turn on BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker) for drive C: on VM1. What should you
do?
A. From Server1, install the BitLocker feature.
B. From Server1, enable nested virtualization for VM1.
C. From VM1, configure the Require additional authentication at startup Group Policy setting.
D. From VM1, configure the Enforce drive encryption type on fixed data drives the Group Policy setting.

Correct Answer: C

https://www.howtogeek.com/howto/6229/how-to-use-bitlocker-on-drives-without-tpm/If you don\’t use TPM for
protecting a drive, there is no such Virtual TPM or VM Generation, or VM Configurationversion requirement, you can
even use Bitlockerwithout TPM Protector with earlier versions of Windows. How to Use BitLocker Without a TPMYou can
bypass this limitation through a Group Policy change. If your PC is joined to a business or school domain, you can\’t
change the Group Policy setting yourself. Group policy is configured centrally by your network administrator. To open the
Local Group Policy Editor, press Windows+R on your keyboard, type “gpedit.msc” into the Rundialog box, and press
Enter.Navigate to Local Computer Policy > Computer Configuration > Administrative Templates > WindowsComponents BitLocker Drive Encryption > OperatingSystem Drives in the left pane.

examscode 70-744 q5

Double-click the “Require additional authentication at startup” option in the right pane.

examscode 70-744 q5-1

Select “Enabled” at the top of the window, and ensure the “Allow BitLocker without a compatible TPM (requires a
password or a startup key on a USB flash drive)” checkbox is enabled here. Click “OK” to save your changes. You can
now close the Group Policy Editor window. Your change takes effect immediately–you don\’t even need to reboot.

QUESTION 6

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com.
The domain contains two global groups named Group1 and Group2. A user named User1 is a member of Group1
You have an organizational unit (OU) named OU1 that contains the computer accounts of computers that contain
sensitive data. A Group Policy object (GPO) named GPO1 is linked to OU1. OU1 contains a computer account named
Computer1.
GPO1 has the User Rights Assignment configured as shown in the following table.

You need to prevent User1 from signing in to Computer1. What should you do?
A. From Default Domain Policy, modify the Allow log on local user right
B. On Computer1, modify the Deny log on locally user right.
C. From Default Domain Policy, modify the Deny log on local user right
D. Remove User1 to Group2.

Correct Answer: D

https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/cc957048.aspx”Deny log on locally”Computer Configuration\Windows
Settings\Security Settings\Local Policies\User Rights AssignmentDetermines which users are prevented from logging
on at the computer. This policy setting supersedes the Allow Log on local policy setting if an account is subject to
both policies. Therefore, adding User1 to Group2 will let User1 inherit both policies, and then prevent User1 to sign in
toComputer1.

QUESTION 7

HOTSPOT

You run the Windows PowerShell commands as shown in the following exhibit.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:

examscode 70-744 q7-1

References: https://blogs.technet.microsoft.com/datacentersecurity/2016/03/16/windows-server-2016-and-host-guardianservice-for-shielded-vms/ https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/windows-server/security/guarded-fabric-shieldedvm/guarded-fabric-troubleshoot-hgs

QUESTION 8

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a user named User1 and
a computer named Computer1. Remote Server Administration Tools (RSAT) is installed on Computer1.
You need to add User1 as a data recovery agent in the domain.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

examscode 70-744 q8

Correct Answer:

examscode 70-744 q8-1

References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/library/cc875821.aspx#EJAA https://www.serverbrain.org/managingsecurity-2003/using-the-cipher-command-to-add-data-recovery-agent.html

QUESTION 9

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains servers that run
Windows Server 2016.
You enable Remote Credential Guard on a server named Server1.
You have an administrative computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10.
Computer1 is configured to require Remote Credential Guard.
You sign in to Computer1 as Contoso\User1.
You need to establish a Remote Desktop session to Server1 as Contoso\ServerAdmin1.
What should you do first?
A. Install the Universal Windows Platform (UWP) Remote Desktop application
B. Turn on virtualization-based security
C. Run the mstsc.exe /remote guard
D. Sign in to Computer1 as Contoso\ServerAdmin1

Correct Answer: D

When Computer1 is configured to require Remote Credential Guard, you cannot use NTLM authentication to specify (or
impersonate) another user account when connecting to Server1. Therefore, you have to sign in to Computer1 as
“ServerAdmin1” and use Kerberos for authenticating to RDP server “Server1” when Remote Credential Guard is
required.

QUESTION 10

The network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains the servers configured as
shown in the following table.

examscode 70-744 q10

All servers run Windows Server 2016. All client computers run Windows 10 and are domain members.
All laptops are protected by using BitLocker Drive Encryption (BitLocker).You have an organizational unit (OU) named
OU1 that contains the computer accounts of application servers.
An OU named OU2 contains the computer accounts of the computers in the marketing department.
A Group Policy object (GPO) named GP1 is linked to OU1.
A GPO named GP2 is linked to OU2.
All computers receive updates from Server1.
You create an update rule named Update1.
You need to ensure that you can view Windows PowerShell code that was generated dynamically and executed on the
computers in OU1.
What would you configure in GP1?
A. Object Access\Audit Application Generated from the advanced audit policy
B. Turn on PowerShell Script Block Logging from the PowerShell settings
C. Turn on Module Logging from the PowerShell settings
D. Object Access\Audit Other Object Access Events from the advanced audit policy

Correct Answer: B

https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/wmf/5.0/audit_scriptWhile Windows PowerShell already has the
LogPipelineExecutionDetails Group Policy setting to log the invocation of cmdlets, PowerShell\’s scripting language
has plenty of features that you might want to log and/or audit. The new Detailed Script Tracing feature lets you enable
detailed tracking and analysis of Windows PowerShell scripting use on a system. After you enable detailed script tracing,
Windows PowerShell logs all script blocks to the ETW event log, Microsoft-Windows-PowerShell/Operational. If a script
block creates another script block (for example, a script that calls the Invoke-Expression cmdlet on a string), that
resulting script block is logged as well. Logging of these events can be enabled through the Turn on PowerShell Script
Block Logging Group Policysetting (in Administrative Templates -> WindowsComponents -> Windows PowerShell).

QUESTION 11

Your network contains an Active Directory named contoso.com.
The domain contains the computers configured as shown in the following table.

examscode 70-744 q11

Server1, Computer1, and Computer2 have the connection security rules configured as shown in follow:

examscode 70-744 q11-1

When Computer1 accesses Share1, SMB encryption will be used: YES When Computer2 accesses Share1, SMB
encryption will be used: YES When Server1 accesses a shared folder on Computer1, IPsec encryption will be used: NO
The shared folder “Share1” is configured with “EncryptData: True”, no matter which network the client resides, SMB 3
communication will be encrypted. When Server1 access Computer1 over the network, the original packet L3 IP Header is
as
follow -172.16.1.30? gt; 172.16.10.60These traffic does not match the enabled IPSec rule “Rule2” nor “Rule3”, and the
only matching rule “Rule1” is disabled. So, no IPsec encryption will be achieved.

QUESTION 12

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. You plan to implement encryption on a file
server named Server1. Server1 has TPM 2.0 and uses Secure Boot Server1 has the volumes configured as shown in
the

examscode 70-744 q12

following table.
You need to encrypt the contents of volumes C and G. The solution must use the highest level of security possible.
What should you use to encrypt the contents of each volume? To answer, drag the appropriate encryption options to the
correct volumes. Each encryption option may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the
split
bar between panes or scroll to view content.
Select and Place:

examscode 70-744 q12-1

QUESTION 13

Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains a file server named
Server1 that runs Windows Server 2016.Server1 has a shared folder named Share1.
You plan to create a subfolder in Share1 for each domain user.
You need to limit each user to use 100 MB of data in their respective subfolder.
The solution must enable the users to be notified when they use 80 percent of the available space in the subfolder.
Which tool should you use?
A. File Explorer
B. Shared Folders
C. Server Manager
D. Disk Management
E. Storage Explorer
F. Computer Management
G. System Configuration
H. File Server Resource Manager (FSRM)

Correct Answer: H

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Latest updates Cisco 300-420 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

What is the advantage of designing an out-of-band network management solution?
A. In the event of a production network outage, network devices can still be managed.
B. There is no separation between the production network and the management network.
C. In the event of a production network outage, it can be used as a backup network path.
D. It is less expensive than an in-band management solution

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2

Which design consideration should be observed when EIGRP is configured on Data Center switches?
A. Perform manual summarization on all Layer 3 interfaces to minimize the size of the routing table.
B. Prevent unnecessary EIGRP neighborships from forming across switch virtual interfaces.
C. Lower EIGRP hello and hold timers to their minimum settings to ensure rapid route reconvergence.
D. Configure multiple EIGRP autonomous systems to segment Data Center services and applications.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

A customer is discussing QoS requirements with a network consultant. The customer has specified that end-to-end path
verification is a requirement. Which QoS solution meets this requirement?
A. IntServ model with RSVP to support the traffic flows
B. DiffServ model with PHB to support the traffic flows
C. marking traffic at the access layer with DSCP to support the traffic flows
D. marking traffic at the access layer with CoS to support the traffic flows

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

How do endpoints inside an SD-Access network reach resources outside the fabric?
A. a VRF fusion router is used to map resources in one VN to another VN
B. Fabric borders use VRFs to map VNs to VRFs
C. SD-Access transit links are used to transport encapsulated traffic from one fabric to another
D. A fabric edge is used to de-encapsulate VXLAN traffic to normal IP traffic then transported over the outside network

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5

Which feature is required for a graceful restart to recover from a processor failure?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding
B. Virtual Switch System
C. Stateful Switchover
D. Bidirectional Forwarding Detection

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6

A branch office has a primary L3VPN MPLS connection back to the main office and an IPSEC VPN tunnel that serves
as a backup. Which design ensures that data is sent over the backup connection only if the primary MPLS circuit is
down?
A. Use EIGRP to establish a neighbor relationship with the main office via L3VPN MPLS and the IPSEC VPN tunnel.
B. Use BGP with the multipath feature enabled to force traffic via the primary path when available.
C. Use static routes tied to an IP SLA to prefer the primary path while a floating static route points to the backup
connection.
D. Use OSPF with a passive-interface command on the backup connection.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7

Which routes does the overlay management protocol advertise in an SD-WAN overlay?
A. underlay, MPLS, and overlay
B. primary, backup, and load-balanced
C. prefix, TLOC, and service
D. Internet, MPLS, and backup

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8

examscode 300-420 q8

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must optimize the traffic flow of the network. Which change provides a more efficient
design between the access and the distribution layer?
A. Add a link between access switch A and access switch B
B. Reconfigure the distribution switch A to become the HSRP Active
C. Change the link between distribution switch A and distribution switch B to be a routed link
D. Create an EtherChannel link between distribution switch A and distribution switch B

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9

An engineer is designing an enterprise campus network. The LAN infrastructure consists of switches from multiple
vendors, and Spanning Tree must be used as a Layer 2 loop prevention mechanism. All configured VLANs must be
grouped in two SIP instances. Which standards-based Spanning Tree technology supports this design solution?
A. MSTP
B. RSTP
C. Rapid PVST
D. STP

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10

Which NETCONF operation creates filtering that is specific to the session notifications?
A.
B.
C.
D.

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11

What is the benefit of using VRRPv3 as compared to VRRPv2?
A. VRRPv3 supports IPv4 and IPv6
B. VRRPv3 supports authentication
C. VRRPv3 supports preemption
D. VRRPv3 supports stateful switchover

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12

Which OSPF area blocks LSA Type 3, 4 and 5, but allows a default summary route?
A. normal
B. stub
C. NSSA
D. totally stubby

Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13

What are two valid scaling techniques when an EIGRP network is designed that consists of more than 1000 routers?
(Choose two.)
A. Use structured hierarchical topology with route summarization
B. Used sub-second timers
C. Use the distribute-list command to filter routes
D. Modify delay parameters on the links
E. Implement multiple EIGRP autonomous systems

Correct Answer: AE

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Designed for SAS professionals who use SAS/STAT® software to conduct and interpret complex statistical data analysis

Successful candidates should have experience in:

  • Analysis of variance.
  • Linear and logistic regression.
  • Preparing inputs for predictive models.
  • Measuring model performance.

Latest Updates SASInstitute A00-240 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.examscode a00-240 exam questions q1

These graphs were created using the GLM procedure with the plots(only)=diagnostics option.
Which plot do you use to identify influential observations?
A. Cook\\’s D by Observation
B. Residual by Quantile
C. Residual by Predicted
D. Fit – Mean and Residual Plot
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://books.google.com.pk/books?id=fx77Pzerty8Candpg=PA279andlpg=PA279anddq=sas+statistical+an
alysis+plot+do+you+use+to+identify+influential +observationsandsource=blandots=AJavSAql_gandsig=ACfU3U0jbAa6l
TWvSeSJ6y5bwp4osAyigAandhl=enandsa=Xandved=2ahUKEwje34nyqajnAhXDThUIHUfUCj0Q6AEwEXoECAoQAQ#
v=onepageandq=sas%20statistical%20analysis%20plot%20do%
20you%20use%20to%20identify%20influential%20observationsandf=false

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the following exhibit:examscode a00-240 exam questions q2

What is the correct interpretation of this graph?
A. The association between the continuous predictor and the binary response is quadratic.
B. The association between the continuous predictor and the log-odds is quadratic.
C. The association between the continuous predictor and the continuous response is quadratic.
D. The association between the binary predictor and the log-odds is quadratic.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which statistic is based on the maximum vertical distance between the primary event EDF and the secondary event
EDF?
A. KS
B. SBC
C. Max EDF
D. Brier Score
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://support.sas.com/documentation/onlinedoc/ets/132/severity.pdf

 

QUESTION 4
A company has branch offices in eight regions. Customers within each region are classified as either “High Value” or
“Medium Value” and are coded using the variable name VALUE. In the last year, the total amount of purchases per
customer is used as the response variable.
Suppose there is a significant interaction between REGION and VALUE. What can you conclude?
A. More high-value customers are found in some regions than others.
B. The difference between average purchases for medium and high-value customers depends on the region.
C. Regions with higher average purchases have more high-value customers.
D. Regions with higher average purchases have more medium value customers.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
This question will ask you to provide a missing option.
A business analyst is investigating the differences in sales figures across 8 sales regions. The analyst is interested in
viewing the regression equation parameter estimates for each of the design variables.
Which option completes the program to produce the regression equation parameter estimates?examscode a00-240 exam questions q5

A. Solve
B. Estimate
C. Solution
D. Est
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://documentation.sas.com/?docsetId=statuganddocsetTarget=statug_ods_examples06.htmanddocsetVersion=14.3andlocale=en

 

QUESTION 6
In order to perform an honest assessment of a predictive model, what is an acceptable division between training,
validation, and testing data?
A. Training: 50% Validation: 0% Testing: 50%
B. Training: 100% Validation: 0% Testing: 0%
C. Training: 0% Validation: 100% Testing: 0%
D. Training: 50% Validation: 50% Testing: 0%
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
In partitioning data for model assessment, which sampling methods are acceptable? (Choose two.)
A. Simple random sampling without replacement
B. Simple random sampling with replacement
C. Stratified random sampling without replacement
D. Sequential random sampling with replacement
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 8
Refer to the confusion matrix:examscode a00-240 exam questions q8

Calculate the sensitivity. (0 – negative outcome, 1 – positive outcome)
Click the calculator button to display a calculator if needed.
A. 25/48
B. 58/102
C. 25/B9
D. 58/81
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
The selection criterion used in the forward selection method in the GLMSELECT procedure is:
A. RSQ
B. MSE
C. R-squared
D. AIC
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
This question will ask you to provide a missing option. Given the following SAS program:examscode a00-240 exam questions q10

What option must be added to the program to obtain a data set containing Spearman statistics?
A. OUTCORR=estimates
B. OUTS=estimates
C. OUT=estimates
D. OUTPUT=estimates
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 11
The Model SS in a multiple linear regression model is equal to:
A. the total SS- MSE
B. the sum of Type I SS of all model terms
C. the sum of Type II SS of all model terms
D. the sum of SSE and MSE
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://core.ecu.edu/psyc/wuenschk/SAS/SS1234.pdf

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the ROC curve:examscode a00-240 exam questions q12

As you move along the curve, what changes?
A. The priors in the population
B. The true negative rate in the population
C. The proportion of events in the training data
D. The probability cutoff for scoring
Correct Answer: D

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[2020.6] Latest effective Scrum PSM-I exam dump and online practice questions

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Latest Updates Scrum PSM-I Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
What are two good ways for the Development Team to make non-functional requirements visible? (Choose two.)
A. Put them on a separate list on the Scrum board, available for all to see.
B. Add them to the Product Backlog and keep the Product Owner posted on the expected effort.
C. Run the integration and regression tests before the end of the Sprint, and capture the open work for the Sprint
Backlog of the next Sprint.
D. Add them to the definition of “Done” so the work is taken care of every Sprint.
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 2
What is the time-box for the Sprint Review?
A. As long as needed.
B. 2 hours for a monthly Sprint.
C. 4 hours for a monthly Sprint.
D. 4 hours and longer as needed.
E. 1 day
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which statement best describes a Product Owner\\’s responsibility?
A. Optimizing the value of the work the Development Team does.
B. Managing the project and ensuring that the work meets the commitments to the stakeholders.
C. Directing the Development Team.
D. Keep stakeholders from distracting the Development Team.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Who must attend the Daily Scrum?
A. The Scrum Master and Product Owner.
B. The Development Team.
C. The Development Team and Product Owner.
D. The Scrum Team.
E. The Development Team and Scrum Master.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Which topics should be discussed in the Sprint Review?
A. The Scrum process, and how it was used during the Sprint.
B. Coding and engineering practices.
C. Sprint results.
D. All of the above.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
What is the recommended size for a Development Team?
A. 7 plus or minus 3.
B. At least 7.
C. 9.
D. 3 to 9.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
During a Sprint, when is new work or further decomposition of work added to the Sprint Backlog?
A. When the Product Owner identifies new work.
B. As soon as possible after they are identified.
C. When the Scrum Master has time to enter them.
D. During the Daily Scrum after the Development Team approves them.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
During a Sprint Retrospective, for what is the Scrum Master responsible?
A. Prioritizing the resulting action items.
B. Participating as a Scrum team member and facilitating as requested or needed.
C. Acting as a scribe to capture the Development Team\\’s answers.
D. Summarizing and reporting the discussions to management.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Who owns the Sprint Backlog?
A. The Scrum Team.
B. The Product Owner.
C. The Scrum Master.
D. The Development Team.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 10
Multiple Scrum Teams working on the same project must have the same Sprint start date.
A. True
B. False
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Which two of the following are appropriate topics for discussion during a Sprint Retrospective? (Choose two.)
A. Identifying high priority process improvements for the next Sprint.
B. The order of items in the Product Backlog.
C. How the team collaborates.
D. Documenting acceptance criteria for items in the next Sprint.
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 12
How often should Development Team membership change?
A. As needed, while taking into account a short term reduction in productivity.
B. Never, because it reduces productivity.
C. As needed, with no special allowance for changes in productivity.
D. Every Sprint to promote shared learning.
Correct Answer: A

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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: Security+
Exam Name: SECURITY+ CERTIFICATION
Exam Code: SY0-101
Total Questions: 600 Q&As
SY0-101 dumps
QUESTION 1
To reduce vulnerabilities on a web server, an administrator should adopt which of the following preventative measures?
A. Use packet sniffing software on all inbound communications.
B. Apply the most recent manufacturer updates and patches to the server.
C. Enable auditing on the web server and periodically review the audit logs.
D. Block all Domain Name Service (DNS) requests coming into the server.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
A company implements an SMTP server on their firewall. This implementation would violate which of the following security principles?
A. Keep the solution simple.
B. Use a device as intended.
C. Create an in-depth defense.
D. Address internal threats.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A company is upgrading the network and needs to reduce the ability of users on the same floor and network segment to see each other’s traffic. SY0-101 dumps Which of the following network devices should be used?
A. Router
B. Hub
C. Switch
D. Firewall
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
A large company wants to deploy an FTP server to support file transfers between business customers and partners. Which of the following should the security specialist consider before making these changes?
A. FTP can be deployed on an isolated server but is unencrypted.
B. FTP can consume significant bandwidth.
C. FTP facilitates business-to-business file transfers and has few risks.
D. FTP transfers data in an unencrypted format.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A web page becomes unresponsive whenever the embedded calendar control is used. Which of the following types of vulnerabilities is occurring?
A. Common Gateway Interface (CGI)
B. ActiveX
C. Cross-site scripting
D. Cookies
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which of the following would be needed to ensure that a user who has received an email cannot claim that the email was not received?
A. Anti-aliasing
B. Data integrity
C. Asymmetric cryptography
D. Non-repudiation
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
A VPN is needed for users to connect to a remote site and the VPN must be transparent to the user.
Which of the following VPN models would be BEST to use?
A. Gateway to Gateway
B. Host to Host
C. Host to Gateway
D. Gateway to Host
Correct Answer:A

QUESTION 8
The employees at a company are using instant messaging on company networked computers. The MOST important security issue to address when using instant messaging is that instant messaging:
A. communications are a drain on bandwidth.
B. communications are open and unprotected.
C. has no common protocol.
D. uses weak encryption.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A VPN typically provides a remote access link from one host to another over:
A. an intranet.
B. a modem.
C. a network interface card.
D. the Internet.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
Which of the following would be BEST to do when network file sharing is needed? SY0-101 dumps (Select TWO).
A. Allow read permissions only for unauthenticated users.
B. Create local users who have no access to the shares.
C. Allow access to administrators only.
D. Place the share on a different volume than the operating system.
E. Set a disk quota.
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 11
Which of the following types of firewalls provides inspection at layer 7 of the OSI model?
A. Application-proxy
B. Network address translation (NAT)
C. Packet filters
D. Stateful inspection
Correct Answer:A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following would be the MOST important reason to apply updates?
A. Software is a licensed product and the license will expire if not updated.
B. Software is a supported product and vendors won’t support the product if the latest version is not installed.
C. Software is a productivity facilitator and as new functionality is available the functionality must be enabled.
D. Software is inherently insecure and as new vulnerabilities are found the vulnerabilities must be fixed.
Correct Answer: D

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Free Oracle 1Z0-988 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Which three of the following are true when you are configuring General Ledger (GL) key components? (Choose three.)
A. One can configure more than one key component per domain.
B. The key components are used in the GL lookup key.
C. The key component can be defined for shipments, order releases, and order bases.
D. The key component is a basic building block that is used to assign GL codes.
E. We can define a new key component type to be used in the key component.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 2
Which three methods can be used to convert currency rates used by Oracle Transportation Management (OTM)?
(Choose three.)
A. Write an API to bring in rates from an external source.
B. Set the value for the glog.currency.base property to your currency storage default.
C. Set the exchange rates on Rate Records in OTM.
D. Update rates manually using a CSV file.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 3
Which statement is false about the User Role?
A. User Role controls data visibility via function security (Level).
B. User Role controls data visibility via a private database (VPD).
C. You can assign multiple roles to a master role.
D. Only one role can be assigned to one User.
Correct Answer: D
You can assign one or more of these roles to a user and the user could switch between the roles as needed without
logging in and out.
Reference: https://tms.caleres.com/html/help/webhelp/en/user_management/user_role.htm

QUESTION 4
By default, OTM installs some agents at the time of installation. Identify two correct statements. (Choose two.)
A. All agents are inactive. The Administrator or other authorized persons must review and activate those they want to
run in their environment.
B. All agents are active. The Administrator or other authorized persons must review and activate those they want to run
in their environment.
C. By default, some agents are active, while others are inactive. The Administrator or other authorized persons must
review the agents and activate or deactivate appropriately.
D. OTM will install agents into domains such as PUBLIC and SERVPROV.
E. OTM will install agents into the designated “company” domain, but not into domains such as PUBLIC and
SERVPROV.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
In which part is the Tender Timeout configured?
A. On the Service Provider Header
B. On the location role
C. On the Communication and Remarks tab
D. On the contact associated to the Service Provider
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You are writing an order release agent and need to listen for an order modification event triggered by an integration
update to the order release. What is the impact to the agent process if you set the “before persist” flag on the ORDER ?
MODIFIED event?
A. OTM will not persist the new data but will perform the agent actions as long as they do not require persisting the new
data.
B. OTM stages the new data, will perform the agent actions, will not allow you to use certain actions.
C. OTM will perform the agent actions but will not persist any changes to the object.
D. OTM will persist the new data immediately after the agent is triggered and then perform the agent actions.
E. OTM stages the new data but will not perform the agent actions of the data is not persisted properly.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Identify the incorrect option about the commodity setup.
A. You can select transportation modes while defining a commodity.
B. You can link commodity with equipment types while defining a new commodity.
C. Specific temperature controls cannot be assigned while defining a commodity.
D. Incompatible commodities can be captured while defining a commodity.
Correct Answer: C
Besides linking commodities with equipment types, you can also select transportation modes for commodities, as well
as specific temperature controls. Reference:
https://tms.caleres.com/html/help/webhelp/en/planning/material_manager/create_commodity.htm

QUESTION 8
Which tender method would you use to call a Service Provider on the phone in order to notify them that you have
tendered a shipment to them?
A. None
B. Manual
C. No Contact
D. Message Center
E. Phone or Fax
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Select the three businesses objects that can be manage using the Fleet Management module. (Choose three.)
A. Fleet power units
B. Fleet equipment
C. Driver payroll
D. Driver work hours
E. Driver time off, sick time, vacations, etc.
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 10
What is the difference between a BUY Shipment and a SELL Shipment?
A. BUY Shipments are tendered to third party carries, and SELL Shipments are tendered to a company\\’s private Fleet.
B. BUY Shipments are created for inbound (vendor Purchase Orders) shipments, and SELL Shipments are created for
outbound (company Sales Orders) shipments.
C. BUY Shipments are created by Planners in a Company domain for their own shipments, and SELL Shipments are
created by Planners in a 3PL COMPANY domain for their clients\\’ shipments.
D. BUY Shipments are created when you wish to purchase services, and SELL Shipments are created when you wish
to charge a customer for services.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
In which two situations is redriving used? (Choose two.)
A. To redrive the shipment from the location of the tracking event to the next stops of the shipment
B. To redrive the shipment from the first stop of the shipment to the location of the tracking event
C. To redrive the shipment if the tracking event location is a specific stop on a shipment
D. To redrive the entire shipment
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 12
When a new Service Provider is created, OTM automatically does which of the following?
A. OTM creates a corresponding LOCATION, with the location Role of “CARRIER”.
B. OTM sends an email or fax to the Service Provider contact, depending on the contact\\’s preferred contact method.
C. OTM assigns the default Calendar defined in the Parameter Set.
D. OTM associates the Service Provider calendar with the calendar of the CORPORATION ID identified during setup.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which two statements are true about Saved query? (Choose two.)
A. Saved queries can be created from search page.
B. Saved queries cannot be SQL based.
C. Saved queries contain pre-defined search and sort parameters.
D. Saved queries are user specific, not domain specific.
Correct Answer: AC

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Free Oracle 1Z0-965 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
A Human Resource Representative is in the process of transferring an employee from the French Subsidiary to the US
Subsidiary and exercise the option of Global Transfer. Identify the three options for the Global Transfer process.
A. The Human Resources Representative can override the default by deselecting the assignments that are not required
to be terminated; these assignments retain their original status and the work relationship is not terminated.
B. A new work relationship in the destination legal employer is not created automatically.
C. The existing employment terms and assignments in the source work relationship are terminated and their status is
set to Inactive ?Payroll Eligible by default.
D. A new worker relationship in the destination legal employer is created automatically.
E. The Human Resource Representative cannot override the default changes.
Correct Answer: ABC
Reference https://docs.oracle.com/cloud/r13_update17b/globalcs_gs/FAWHR/FAWHR1662739.htm#FAWHR1662739

QUESTION 2
Your customer requires that the person number should not be generated if a request for new hire is not approved by the
approver.
Which method should be used?
A. Automatic Upon Final Save
B. Automatic Upon Final Submission
C. Automatic Prior to Final Save
D. Automatic Prior to Submission
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
In an organization, a line manager is going on a long vacation and wants all his approval notifications to flow to his
supervisor for approval in his absence. How can he accomplish this task?
A. A system administrator always has to reassign the approval notification to the supervisor in the line manager\\’s
absence.
B. The application automatically delegates the approval to his supervisor based on the leave applied for by the line
manager.
C. He has to configure new approval routing policies.
D. A Vacation rule can be set under the Preferences section of worklist notification\\’s Human Capital Management
server.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Which three statements are true about Person Number? (Choose three.)
A. The Person Number Generation Method cannot be changed once a person has been entered.
B. Initial Person Number cannot be provided at enterprise level.
C. The Person Number Generation method can be changed any time.
D. Initial Person Number can be provided at enterprise level.
E. Person Numbers for contacts are generated automatically.
Correct Answer: ADE

QUESTION 5
If multiple people update a performance rating for a competency on a worker\\’s profile, what is used to provide a unique
identifier for each instance of the competency so what you can determine who provided what rating?
A. educational establishment
B. rating model
C. content subscriber
D. instance qualifier
E. content library
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which two statements are true about Action and Action Reasons?
A. There is always a one-to-one relationship between Action Type and Action.
B. It is mandatory to associate Actions with Action Reasons.
C. The history of effective date changes can be tracked well by using the Actions framework.
D. Terminations predictive analytics uses Actions and Reasons data to identify whether a termination is voluntary or
involuntary.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 7
Your customer is hiring an employee and assigning a line manager to the newly hired employee. What statement is
correct?
A. The line manager search is based on the public person security access.
B. The line manager search is based on the job in which the employee is hired; only the job grade higher than the
employee job will appear in this list.
C. The line manager search is based on the position hierarchy. Therefore, if an employee is hired in a particular
position, the search will populate employees with a higher position than the newly hired employee.
D. All the employees whose employment record has the “Working as Manager” check box marked as “Yes” can appear
in the drop-down list.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
An organization has multiple legal entities that need to be registered with more than one jurisdiction. Also, legal authority
information needs to be printed on statutory reports.
As an Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud implementation consultant, which three options must you be aware of
while defining legal jurisdiction and authorities for this organization?
A. Because there are multiple registrations, at least one jurisdiction must be defined as the identifying jurisdiction.
B. When a legal entity is created, one legal reporting unit is automatically created for that legal entity with a registration.
C. Income tax jurisdiction needs to be created to report income tax to the legal authority.
D. Legal authorities are mandatory in Oracle Global Human Resources Cloud.
E. Legal authorities are defined in Enterprise Structure Configurator.
Correct Answer: ACE

QUESTION 9
As an implementation consultant, you are required to set some approvals under Manage Employment tasks as Auto
Approve.
Which two items need to be specified while defining the BPM Worklist Rule for auto-approval?
A. Enter APPROVE in the Auto Action field.
B. Set up dynamic approval rule.
C. Enter AUTO APPROVE in the Auto Action field.
D. Set Auto Action Enabled to True.
E. Select Number of Levels as 0.
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 10
Which option represents the basis on which approval routing policies can be defined?
A. Employee Supervisor Hierarchy, Position Hierarchy, Job Levels, Approval Groups, Organization Hierarchy
B. Employee Supervisor Hierarchy, Position Hierarchy, Job Levels
C. Employee Supervisor Hierarchy, Position Hierarchy, Job Levels, Approval Groups
D. Employee Supervisor Hierarchy, Position Hierarchy, Grades, Approval Groups, Organization Hierarchy
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
A worker in an organization will be holding a new position because the worker holding the position has gone on
maternity leave. When the second worker is back from maternity leave, the former will be moved back to his or her old
position. His or her payroll and legal reporting will be the same even after the position changes.
Which transfer method should be used for the first movement of the said worker?
A. Global Transfer
B. Transfer
C. Temporary Assignment
D. Global Temporary Assignment
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
As an implementation consultant, you are required to define a legal entity. Which three options are correct about a legal
entity?
A. A legal entity may act as a virtual organization.
B. A legal entity must comply with regulations and local jurisdictions.
C. A legal entity can be identified as a legal employer in Human Capital Management.
D. A legal entity can own assets, record sales, pay taxes, and perform transactions.
E. Legal entities are not responsible for payment of social insurance.
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 13
Which three options are true about the Global Person model?
A. Person records are global, independent of legal employers, and created only once for any person.
B. Person records continue to exist even when the person has no current work relationships in the enterprise and no
current contact relationships with other workers.
C. Person records cease to exist when a person is terminated from an organization.
D. Person records hold information that is personal, such as name, date of birth, and disability information, or that may
apply to more than one work relationship, such as national ID.
E. Person records are auto-archived two years after a person is terminated from an organization.
Correct Answer: ABD

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AZ-103 Microsoft Azure Administrator:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-az-103.aspx

Starting on May 1, 2019, you only need to pass Exam AZ-103 to earn this certification. This new exam combines the skills covered in AZ-100 and AZ-101 (which retired on May 1, 2019), with the majority of the new exam coming from AZ-100.

Candidates for this exam are Azure Administrators who manage cloud services that span storage, security, networking,
and compute cloud capabilities. Candidates have a deep understanding of each service across the full IT lifecycle and take requests for infrastructure services, applications, and environments. They make recommendations on services to use for optimal performance and scale, as well as provision, size, monitor, and adjust resources as appropriate.

Skills measured

  • Manage Azure subscriptions and resources (15-20%)
  • Implement and manage storage (15-20%)
  • Deploy and manage virtual machines (VMs) (15-20%)
  • Configure and manage virtual networks (30-35%)
  • Manage identities (15-20%)

Microsoft Azure AZ-103 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
You have an Azure subscription.
Users access the resources in the subscription from either home or from customer sites. From home, users must
establish a point-to-site VPN to access the Azure resources. The users on the customer sites access the Azure
resources by
using site-to-site VPNs.
You have a line-of-business app named App1 that runs on several Azure virtual machine. The virtual machines run
Windows Server 2016.
You need to ensure that the connections to App1 are spread across all the virtual machines. What are two possible
Azure services that you can use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. a public load balancer
B. Traffic Manager
C. an Azure Content Delivery Network (CDN)
D. an internal load balancer
E. an Azure Application Gateway
Correct Answer: DE

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result,
these questions will not appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure virtual machine named VM1. VM1 was deployed by using a custom Azure Resource Manager
template named ARM1.json.
You receive a notification that VM1 will be affected by maintenance.
You need to move VM1 to a different host immediately.
Solution: From the Update management blade, you click enable.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
You would need to Redeploy the VM.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-machines/windows/redeploy-to-new-node

QUESTION 3
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains a virtual machine named VM1.
You have a computer named Computer1 that runs Windows 10. Computer1 is connected to the Internet. You add a
network interface named Interface1 to VM1 as shown in the exhibit (Click the Exhibit button.)leads4pass az-103 exam question q3

From Computer1, you attempt to connect to VM1 by using Remote Desktop, but the connection fails.
You need to establish a Remote Desktop connection to VM1.
What should you do first?
A. Start VM1.
B. Attach a network interface.
C. Delete the DenyAllOutBound outbound port rule.
D. Delete the DenyAllInBound inbound port rule.
Correct Answer: A
Incorrect Answers:
B: The network interface has already been added to VM.
C: The Outbound rules are fine.
D: The inbound rules are fine. Port 3389 is used for Remote Desktop.
Note: Rules are processed in priority order, with lower numbers processed before higher numbers, because lower
numbers have higher priority. Once traffic matches a rule, processing stops. As a result, any rules that exist with lower
priorities (higher numbers) that have the same attributes as rules with higher priorities are not processed.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/security-overview

QUESTION 4
You are the global administrator for an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenet named adatum.com.
You need to enable two-step verification for Azure users.
What should you do?
A. Create a sign-in risk policy in Azure AD Identity Protection
B. Enable Azure AD Privileged Identity Management.
C. Create and configure the Identity Hub.
D. Configure a security policy in Azure Security Center.
Correct Answer: A
With Azure Active Directory Identity Protection, you can: require users to register for multi-factor authentication handle
risky sign-ins and compromised users
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/identity-protection/flows

QUESTION 5
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that has Azure AD Privileged Identity Management configured.
You have 10 users who are assigned the Security Administrator role for the tenant. You need the users to verify whether
they still require the Security Administrator role.
What should you do?
A. From Azure AD Identity Protection, configure a user risk policy.
B. From Azure AD Privileged Identity Management, create an access review.
C. From Azure AD Identity Protection, configure the Weekly Digest.
D. From Azure AD Privileged Identity Management, create a conditional access policy.
Correct Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-how-to-start-security-review

QUESTION 6
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address
bar.leads4pass az-103 exam question q6

leads4pass az-103 exam question q6-1

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When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button. Note that you cannot return to the lab once you
click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you complete the rest of the exam.
Overview
The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While
most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste,
ability
to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design. Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks
stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will
earn credit for that task.
Labs are not timed separately, and this exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as
much time as you would like to complete each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you
are
able to complete the lab(s) and all other sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
To start the lab
You may start the lab by clicking the Next button.
You need to create a virtual network named VNET1008 that contains three subnets named subnet0, subnet1, and
subnet2. The solution must meet the following requirements:
Connections from any of the subnets to the Internet must be blocked. Connections from the Internet to any of the
subnets must be blocked. The number of network security groups (NSGs) and NSG rules must be minimized.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
A. Answer: See solution below.
Correct Answer: A
Step 1: Click Create a resource in the portal.
Step 2: Enter Virtual network in the Search the Marketplace box at the top of the New pane that appears. Click Virtual
network when it appears in the search results. Step 3: Select Classic in the Select a deployment model box in the
Virtual
Network pane that appears, then click Create.
Step 4: Enter the following values on the Create virtual network (classic) pane and then click Create:
Name: VNET1008
Address space: 10.0.0.0/16
Subnet name: subnet0
Resource group: Create new
Subnet address range: 10.0.0.0/24
Subscription and location: Select your subscription and location. Step 5: In the portal, you can create only one subnet
when you create a virtual network. Click Subnets (in the SETTINGS section) on the Create virtual network (classic)
pane
that appears.
Click +Add on the VNET1008 – Subnets pane that appears.
Step 6: Enter subnet1 for Name on the Add subnet pane. Enter 10.0.1.0/24 for Address range. Click OK.
Step 7: Create the third subnet: Click +Add on the VNET1008 – Subnets pane that appears. Enter subnet2 for Name on
the Add subnet pane. Enter 10.0.2.0/24 for Address range. Click OK.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/virtual-network/create-virtual-network-classic

QUESTION 7
You create an Azure subscription named Subscription1 and an associated Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant
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You need to add an Azure AD Privileged Identity Management application to Tenant1. Which account can you use?
A. [email protected]
B. [email protected]
C. [email protected]
D. [email protected]
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-getting-started

QUESTION 8
You need to recommend an environment for the deployment of App1. What should you recommend?
A. a new App Service plan that uses the P3v2 pricing tier
B. ASE1 and an App Service plan that uses the I1 pricing tier
C. ASE1 and an App Service plan that uses the I3 pricing tier
D. a new App Service plan that uses the S1 pricing tier
Correct Answer: B
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/environment/app-service-app-service-environment-control-inbound-traffic

QUESTION 9
Click to expand each objective. To connect to the Azure portal, type https://portal.azure.com in the browser address
bar.leads4pass az-103 exam question q9

When you are finished performing all the tasks, click the `Next\\’ button. Note that you cannot return to the lab once you
click the `Next\\’ button. Scoring occur in the background while you complete the rest of the exam.
Overview
The following section of the exam is a lab. In this section, you will perform a set of tasks in a live environment. While
most functionality will be available to you as it would be in a live environment, some functionality (e.g., copy and paste,
ability
to navigate to external websites) will not be possible by design.
Scoring is based on the outcome of performing the tasks stated in the lab. In other words, it doesn\\’t matter how you
accomplish the task, if you successfully perform it, you will earn credit for that task. Labs are not timed separately, and
this
exam may have more than one lab that you must complete. You can use as much time as you would like to complete
each lab. But, you should manage your time appropriately to ensure that you are able to complete the lab(s) and all
other
sections of the exam in the time provided.
Please note that once you submit your work by clicking the Next button within a lab, you will NOT be able to return to
the lab.
To start the lab
You may start the lab by clicking the Next button.
You plan to store media files in the rg1lod7523691n1 storage account. You need to configure the storage account to
store the media files. The solution must ensure that only users who have access keys can download the media files and
that
the files are accessible only over HTTPS.
What should you do from Azure portal?
A. Answer: See solution below.
Correct Answer: A
We should create an Azure file share.
Step 1: In the Azure portal, select All services. In the list of resources, type Storage Accounts. As you begin typing, the
list filters based on your input. Select Storage Accounts.
On the Storage Accounts window that appears.
Step 2: Locate the rg1lod7523691n1 storage account.
Step 3: On the storage account page, in the Services section, select Files.

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Step 4: On the menu at the top of the File service page, click + File share. The New file share page drops down. Step 5:
In Name type myshare. Click OK to create the Azure file share.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/files/storage-how-to-use-files-portal

QUESTION 10
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have an Azure subscription named Subscription1. Subscription1 contains a resource group named RG1. RG1
contains resources that were deployed by using templates. You need to view the date and time when the resources
were
created in RG1. Solution: From the Subscriptions blade, you select the subscription, and then click Resource providers.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
You need to create a web app named corp7509086n2 that can be scaled horizontally. The solution must use the lowest
possible pricing tier for the App Service plan.
What should you do from the Azure portal?
A. Answer: See explanation below.
Correct Answer: A
Step 1:
In the Azure Portal, click Create a resource > Web + Mobile > Web App.
Step 2:
Use the Webb app settings as listed below.
Web App name: corp7509086n2
Hosting plan: Azure App Service plan
Pricing tier of the Pricing Tier: Standard
Change your hosting plan to Standard, you can\\’t setup auto-scaling below standard tier.
Step 3:
Select Create to provision and deploy the Web app.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/app-service/environment/app-service-web-how-to-create-a-web-app-in-an-ase
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/pricing/details/app-service/plans/

QUESTION 12
You have an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named Tenant1 and an Azure subscription named You enable
Azure AD Privileged Identity Management.
You need to secure the members of the Lab Creator role. The solution must ensure that the lab creators request access
when they create labs.
What should you do first?
A. From Azure AD Privileged Identity Management, edit the role settings for Lab Creator.
B. From Subscription1 edit the members of the Lab Creator role.
C. From Azure AD Identity Protection, creates a user risk policy.
D. From Azure AD Privileged Identity Management, discover the Azure resources of Conscription.
Correct Answer: A
As a Privileged Role Administrator you can: Enable approval for specific roles Specify approver users and/or groups to
approve requests View request and approval history for all privileged roles
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/privileged-identity-management/pim-configure

QUESTION 13
You have a public load balancer that balancer ports 80 and 443 across three virtual machines.
You need to direct all the Remote Desktop protocol (RDP) to VM3 only.
What should you configure?
A. an inbound NAT rule
B. a load public balancing rule
C. a new public load balancer for VM3
D. a new IP configuration
Correct Answer: A
To port forward traffic to a specific port on specific VMs use an inbound network address translation (NAT) rule.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Load-balancing rule to distribute traffic that arrives at frontend to backend pool instances.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/load-balancer/load-balancer-overview

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2018 Latest Oracle PL/SQL Developer Certified Associate 1Z0-071 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (Q1-Q15)

QUESTION 1
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the DEPARTMENTS and EMPLOYEES tables.
1Z0-071 dumps
To retrieve data for all the employees for their EMPLOYEE_ID, FIRST_NAME, and DEPARTMENT NAME, the following SQL statement was written:
SELECT employee_id, first_name, department_name
FROM employees NATURAL JOIN departments;
The desired output is not obtained after executing the above SQL statement. What could be the reason for this?
A. The NATURAL JOIN clause is missing the USING clause.
B. The table prefix is missing for the column names in the SELECT clause.
C. The DEPARTMENTS table is not used before the EMPLOYEES table in the FROM clause.
D. The EMPLOYEES and DEPARTMENTS tables have more than one column with the same column name and data type.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
View the Exhibit for the structure of the STUDENT and FACULTY tables.
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You need to display the faculty name followed by the number of students handled by the faculty at the base location. Examine the following two SQL statements:
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Which statement is true regarding the outcome?
A. Only statement 1 executes successfully and gives the required result.
B. Only statement 2 executes successfully and gives the required result.
C. Both statements 1 and 2 execute successfully and give different results.
D. Both statements 1 and 2 execute successfully and give the same required result.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which two statements are true regarding the COUNT function? (Choose two.)
A. COUNT(*) returns the number of rows including duplicate rows and rows containing NULL value in any of the columns
B. COUNT(cust_id) returns the number of rows including rows with duplicate customer IDs and NULL value in the CUST_ID column
C. COUNT(DISTINCT inv_amt) returns the number of rows excluding rows containing duplicates and NULL values in the INV_AMT column
D. A SELECT statement using COUNT function with a DISTINCT keyword cannot have a WHERE clause
E. The COUNT function can be used only for CHAR, VARCHAR2 and NUMBER data types
Correct Answer: AC

Explanation:
Using the COUNT Function
The COUNT function has three formats:
COUNT(*)
COUNT(expr)
COUNT(DISTINCT expr)
COUNT(*) returns the number of rows in a table that satisfy the criteria of the SELECT statement, including duplicate rows and rows containing null values in any of the columns. If a WHERE clause is included in the SELECT statement, COUNT(*) returns the number of rows that satisfy the condition in the WHERE clause. 1Z0-071 dumps
In contrast,
COUNT(expr) returns the number of non-null values that are in the column identified by expr.
COUNT(DISTINCT expr) returns the number of unique, non-null values that are in the column identified by expr.

QUESTION 4
Which two statements are true about Data Manipulation Language (DML) statements?
A. AH INSERT INTO. . .VALUES. . statement can add multiple rows per execution to a table.
B. An UPDATE…SET… statement can modify multiple rows based on multiple conditions on a table.
C. A DELETE FROM ….. statement can remove rows based on only a single condition on a table.
D. An INSERT INTO…VALUES….. statement can add a single row based on multiple conditions on a table.
E. A DELETE FROM….. statement can remove multiple rows based on multiple conditions on a table.
F. An UPDATE…SET…. statement can modify multiple rows based on only a single condition on a table.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 5
Which two statements are true about sequences created in a single instance database? (Choose two.)
A. CURRVAL is used to refer to the last sequence number that has been generated
B. DELETE <sequencename> would remove a sequence from the database
C. The numbers generated by a sequence can be used only for one table
D. When the MAXVALUE limit for a sequence is reached, you can increase the MAXVALUE limit by using the ALTER SEQUENCE statement
E. When a database instance shuts down abnormally, the sequence numbers that have been cached but not used would be available once again when the
database instance is restarted
Correct Answer: AD

Explanation:
Gaps in the Sequence
Although sequence generators issue sequential numbers without gaps, this action occurs independent of a commit or rollback. Therefore, if you roll back a statement containing a sequence, the number is lost.
Another event that can cause gaps in the sequence is a system crash. If the sequence caches values in memory, those values are lost if the system crashes.
Because sequences are not tied directly to tables, the same sequence can be used for multiple tables.
However, if you do so, each table can contain gaps in the sequential numbers.
Modifying a Sequence
If you reach the MAXVALUE limit for your sequence, no additional values from the sequence are allocated and you will receive an error indicating that the sequence exceeds the MAXVALUE. To continue to use the sequence, you can modify it by using the ALTER SEQUENCE statement
To remove a sequence, use the DROP statement:
DROP SEQUENCE dept_deptid_seq;

QUESTION 6
You issue the following command to drop the PRODUCTS table:
SQL>DROP TABLE products;
What is the implication of this command? (Choose all that apply.)
A. All data in the table are deleted but the table structure will remain
B. All data along with the table structure is deleted
C. All viewsand synonyms will remain but they are invalidated
D. The pending transaction in the session is committed
E. All indexes on the table will remain but they are invalidated
Correct Answer: BCD

QUESTION 7
You execute the following commands:
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For which substitution variables are you prompted for the input?
A. None, because no input required
B. Both the substitution variables ‘hiredate’ and ‘mgr_id\
C. Only ‘hiredate’
D. Only ‘mgr_id’
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
Evaluate the following two queries:
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Which statement is true regarding the above two queries?
A. Performance would improve query 2 only if there are null values in the CUST__CREDIT__LIMIT column.
B. There would be no change in performance.
C. Performance would degrade in query 2.
D. Performance would improve in query 2.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
The BOOKS_TRANSACTIONStable exists in your database.
Examine the SQL statement:
SQL>SELECT * FROM books_transactionsORDER BY 3;
What is the outcome on execution?
A. The execution tails unless the numeral 3 in the order by clause is replaced by a column name,
B. Rows are displayed in the order that they are stored in the table only for the three rows with the lowest values in the key column.
C. Rows are displayed in the order that they are stored in the table only for the first three rows.
D. Rows are displayed sorted in ascending order of the values in the third column in the table.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
View the Exhibit and examine the description of the PRODUCT_INFORMATION table.
Which SQL statement would retrieve from the table the number of products having LIST_PRICE as NULL?
1Z0-071 dumps
A. SELECT COUNT(list_price)
FROM product_information
WHERE list_price IS NULL;
B. SELECT COUNT(list_price)
FROM product_information
WHERE list_price = NULL;
C. SELECT COUNT(NVL(list_price, 0))
FROM product_information
WHERE list_price IS NULL;
D. SELECT COUNT(DISTINCT list_price)
FROM product_information
WHERE list_price IS NULL;
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
The first DROP operation is performed on PRODUCTS table using the following command:
DROP TABLE products PURGE;
Then you performed the FLASHBACK operation by using the following command:
FLASHBACK TABLE products TO BEFORE DROP;
Which statement describes the outcome of the FLASHBACK command?
A. It recovers only the table structure.
B. It recovers the table structure, data, and the indexes.
C. It recovers the table structure and data but not the related indexes.
D. It is not possible to recover the table structure, data, or the related indexes.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
See the Exhibit and examine the structure of the PROMOTIONS table:
Exhibit:
1Z0-071 dumps
Using the PROMOTIONS table, you need to find out the average cost for all promos in the range $0-2000 and $2000-5000 in category A.
You issue the following SQL statements:
Exhibit:
1Z0-071 dumps
What would be the outcome? 1Z0-071 dumps
A. It generates an error because multiple conditions cannot be specified for the WHEN clause
B. It executes successfully and gives the required result
C. It generates an error because CASE cannot be used with group functions
D. It generates an error because NULL cannot be specified as a return value
Correct Answer: B

Explanation:
CASE Expression
Facilitates conditional inquiries by doing the work of an IF-THEN-ELSE statement:
CASE expr WHEN comparison_expr1 THEN return_expr1 [WHEN comparison_expr2 THEN return_expr2
WHEN comparison_exprn THEN return_exprn
ELSE else_expr]
END

QUESTION 13
View the Exhibit and examine the data in ORDERS_MASTER and MONTHLYjDRDERS tables.
1Z0-071 dumps
Evaluate the following MERGE statement:
MERGE INTO orders_master o
USING monthly_orders m
ON (o.order_id = m.order_id)
WHEN MATCHED THEN
UPDATE SET o.order_total = m.order_total
DELETE WHERE (m.order_total IS NULL)
WHEN NOT MATCHED THEN
INSERT VALUES (m.order_id, m.order_total);
What would be the outcome of the above statement?
A. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDERJDs 1 and 2.
B. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDERJDs 1,2 and 3.
C. The ORDERS_MASTER table would contain the ORDERJDs 1,2 and 4.
D. The ORDERS MASTER table would contain the ORDER IDs 1,2,3 and 4.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which statements are true regarding the WHERE and HAVING clauses in a SELECT statement? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The HAVING clause can be used with aggregate functions in subqueries.
B. The WHERE clause can be used to exclude rows after dividing them into groups.
C. The WHERE clause can be used to exclude rows before dividing them into groups.
D. The aggregate functions and columns used in the HAVING clause must be specified in the SELECT list of the query.
E. The WHERE and HAVING clauses can be used in the same statement only if they are applied to different columns in the table.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 15
Examine the commands used to createDEPARTMENT_DETAILS andCOURSE_DETAILS:
1Z0-071 dumps
You want to generate a list of all department IDs along with any course IDs that may have been assigned to them.
Which SQL statement must you use?
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Correct Answer: C

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