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CV0-001 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which of the following hypervisor types runs on a host operating system that provides virtualization services, including memory management and device support?
A. Type II hypervisor
B. Proprietary hypervisor
C. Type I hypervisor
D. Open source hypervisor
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
An administrator deployed ten application servers from a single VM template. A senior administrator notices that these ten VMs are not using their resources efficiently. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue with the new servers?
A. The dynamic resource pool is malfunctioning.
B. The server is missing security patches.
C. The VM servers were not properly configured.
D. There are insufficient resources available on the host.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is true about a Type II hypervisor?
A. It requires a primary hypervisor to function properly.
B. It implements stronger security controls than a Type I supervisor at the same patch level.
C. It provides slower performance than a Type I hypervisor installed on the same hardware.
D. It provides direct hardware access through the use of specialized drivers.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Which of the following services can an administrator disable to prevent remote access to a system?
A. SMTP
B. DHCP
C. SMS
D. Telnet
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A number of virtual servers suddenly crash, but the physical host is accessible and performing within the baseline.
Which of the following should be done to troubleshoot the issue?
A. Review the dump files on the physical host to determine the reason(s) for the failure.
B. Check the SAN configuration and ensure storage is available.
C. Change from thin to thick-provisioned virtual disks for the virtual machines.
D. Re-enable the physical NIC on the affected hosts.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
A network administrator has been asked to implement a security solution to protect a company\’s internal network from external threats on the Internet. CV0-001 dumps Which of the following technologies is the administrator MOST likely to use?
A. IDS
B. Proxy
C. DMZ
D. Firewall
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which of the following technologies should be used to reduce the disk footprint of a VM?
A. Defragmentation
B. Full disk encryption
C. Thin-provisioning
D. NTFS compression
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
Which of the following uses the business model of shared resources in a cloud environment?
A. Elasticity
B. Self-serve
C. Cloud bursting
D. Multi-tenancy
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
A client was unable to connect to the cloud provider for over an hour on Saturday. Which of the following is the FIRST thing an operations manager should check?
A. SLA
B. Business continuity plan
C. OLA
D. Contract with the cloud provider
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A company has tasked an administrator with virtualizing the server farm and wants to adhere to the principle of n+1. The administrator has analyzed the resource consumption of the current server farm and observes the following:
5 application servers consuming 12 GB RAM each.
4 web servers consuming 2 GB RAM each.
10 terminal servers consuming 6 GB RAM each.
Which of the following is the MINIMUM necessary to meet the requirements of the new host cluster?
A. 1 host with 196GB RAM
B. 2 hosts with 64GB RAM each
C. 3 hosts with 128GB RAM each
D. 4 hosts with 24GB RAM each
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
Which of the following virtualization implementations yields the HIGHEST performance of the same hardware configuration? CV0-001 dumps
A. CPU emulation
B. Type I
C. Memory ballooning
D. Type II
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following would be used to mitigate the risk of an unauthorized party authenticating into the network?
A. Install a software-based firewall
B. Establish a baseline and review logs daily
C. Install antivirus software
D. Disable the administrator account
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following BEST defines RAID 4?
A. RAID 4 allows two failed drives.
B. RAID 4 requires a minimum of 4 disks.
C. RAID 4 has a dedicated parity drive.
D. RAID 4 is less secure than RAID 5.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which of the following RAID levels spreads blocks of a file across multiple disks without parity?
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which of the following may be used prior to encryption of information stored in a database if only weak encryption algorithms are allowed?
A. LUN Masking
B. Obfuscation
C. Access Control Lists
D. Hashing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
An administrator has logically grouped several VMs and configured settings describing the minimum memory requirement for the group. This is a description of which of the following?
A. Resource mapping
B. Resource pooling
C. Storage limits
D. Logical volume manager
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 17
Multipathing achieves which of the following high availability objectives? (Select TWO).
A. Redundancy
B. Site mirroring
C. Fault tolerance
D. Recovery point objective
E. Replication
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 18
Which of the following is the BEST classification for a hosted IP phone PBX? CV0-001 dumps
A. BPaaS
B. SaaS
C. XaaS
D. CaaS
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
Which of the following would be the FIRST choice to encrypt a laptop hard drive?
A. DES
B. TDE
C. AES
D. SSL
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
A hypervisor host that has two fibre-channel ports needs to be connected to a storage array that has four fibre-channel ports. How many zones should be created for maximum redundancy?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 21
A system administrator repeatedly gets reports of files becoming unexpectedly deleted from a shared storage file system. Which of the following is the system administrator MOST likely to investigate?
A. LUN masking
B. Zoning
C. User and host authentication
D. Audit logs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which of the following tables would an administrator use to find a list of paths to network nodes?
A. Port table
B. VPN tagging
C. ARP table
D. Route table
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 23
An administrator adds a new virtualization host to an existing cluster but is unable to move existing VMs to the new host.
Which of the following is MOST likely to be a reason for the VM mobility failure?
A. There are too many connections to the iSCSI LUN.
B. Minimum memory configuration has not been met in the system.
C. The host has not been added to the resource pool.
D. Different CPU architectures are being used.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 24
Which of the following is LEAST suitable for online storage platforms?
A. SSD
B. SAN
C. VTL
D. NAS
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
An administrator is troubleshooting the cause of multiple VMs which are suddenly going offline. Which of the following is the FIRST step in troubleshooting the issue? CV0-001 dumps
A. Review LUN configurations for errors
B. Review Fibre Channel zoning configuration
C. Review system logs on the host
D. Review VM OS multipathing software configuration
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Joe, an administrator, is responsible for the maintenance and support of all virtual servers in his environment. He needs to ensure that access to files and folders is optimized. Which of the following should Joe perform to accomplish this goal?
A. Schedule weekly defrags
B. Archive old data annually
C. Perform daily full backups
D. Implement file compression
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
A user in the human resource (HR) department has reported slow response time to the company personnel database when trying to process new hires to the company. The administrator reviews the department VMs and resource pools to determine the cause of the slow access. The memory and CPU for the host machines in this resource pool have recently been upgraded. Other HR users that do not access the database are not reporting any problems. Which of the following is the cause of the slow response time?
A. NIC failure
B. Disk latency
C. Bandwidth throttling
D. CPU wait time
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 28
Which of the following are components of an Object-Based Storage system? (Select TWO).
A. HBAs
B. Public Network
C. Nodes
D. Private Network
E. Mainframes
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 29
Which of the following would be used to advertise a public IP address on redundant WAN circuits?
A. BGP
B. UDP
C. OSPF
D. ICMP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
Which of the following protocols could be used to identify the OS version installed on a server?
A. WMI
B. IMAP
C. TLS
D. SMTP
Correct Answer: A

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SK0-003 dumps
QUESTION 1
A technician would like to ensure that when users connect to a web server in a server farm, they connect to the server with the lowest CPU utilization. Which of the following technologies would accomplish this?
A. Load balancing
B. High availability
C. Virtual machine
D. Reverse proxy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Changing the boot order of devices can be configured from which of the following?
A. DIP switches
B. BIOS
C. Chipset
D. Control Panel
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is an advantage of using non-ECC memory over ECC memory?
A. ECC is faster than non-ECC
B. Non-ECC is faster than ECC
C. Non-ECC is more expensive than ECC
D. Non-ECC checks for memory errors
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Before installing a new device, a technician checks to make sure the device is on the HCL. Which of the following is the advantage of having an HCL device? SK0-003 dumps
A. It is supported by other vendors
B. Increases performance
C. Decreases cost
D. Meets vendor standards
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
When building a computer with a 32 bit processor, which of the following is the MAXIMUM amount of memory supported?
A. 1GB
B. 2GB
C. 4GB
D. 8GB
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A technician has installed an additional NIC on a server. Which of the following can now be setup?
A. Teaming
B. VLANs
C. Port forwarding
D. Full duplex
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A technician is setting up a network and wants to automatically assign IP addresses. Which of the following will need to be configured to automatically assign IP addresses?
A. WINS
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. NTP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A technician is building a Windows 2008 server and has installed a motherboard, processor, and power supply. Which of the following optical drives should the technician install?
A. Flash Drive
B. DVD-RW
C. CD-ROM
D. SSD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Typically, SK0-003 dumps warranty information can be found on a vendor’s website by looking up which of the following?
A. Original hardware configuration
B. Service manual
C. Service tag
D. Model number
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
When purchasing a UPS for a server room, which of the following are important factors to consider? (Select TWO).
A. Network card configuration
B. Remote access procedures
C. Estimated runtime
D. Maximum load
E. Power cord length
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
A new server must be configured to provide fault tolerant connectivity to the DMZ and the backend database. Which of the following is the MOST cost effective way to accomplish this?
A. A total of six NICs: two pairs of teamed NICs for the DMZ and two NICs for the backend database.
B. One NIC can be configured with VLANs for the DMZ and backend database.
C. A total of eight NICs to be teamed with the appropriate VLANs configured for the DMZ and backend database.
D. A total of four NICs: two NICs for the DMZ and two NICs for the backend database.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is TRUE about a caching name server? (Select TWO).
A. They must have a trusted SSL certificate
B. They can be authoritative
C. They cannot be load-balanced
D. They can be recursive
E. They require DHCP
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
A technician needs to deploy a new Internet facing web server and internal database server. The web server will use the database backend to retrieve shopping cart information. SK0-003 dumps Which of the following configuration utilizes the LEAST resources?
A. Both servers will be virtualized on the same host server. The web server will be configured with an Internet facing NIC connected to the host’s hardware NIC and a backend NIC connected to a virtual switch. The database server NIC will be connected to the same virtual switch.
B. The database server will be created on the existing virtual farm and configured with one physical NIC. The web server will be installed on new hardware and will utilize two physical NICs to separate backend traffic from frontend Internet communication.
C. The web server will be created on the existing virtual farm and configured with two physical NICs, one NIC for backend and one for backend communication. The database server will be installed on new hardware to ensure maximum performance.
D. Both servers will be virtualized on a pair of redundant host servers. Both the web server and the database server will share the same hardware resources. The web server will be configured with one NIC for both frontend and backend communication and the databases server will also have one NIC.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A technician has fixed a reported issue with a heavily used software program and users have verified that the program is working correctly. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
A. Document the process and update the baseline.
B. Test the theory of probable cause and verify with the software vendor.
C. Establish a plan of action to be included in the business impact analysis.
D. Implement the software manufacturer workaround.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
After installing a new hard drive into a server for the purpose of mirroring the data from the first drive to the second one, the server displays an “operating system not found” error. Which of the following should the technician do to boot the server from the original drive?
A. Replace the second drive with a hot swappable one.
B. Swap the drive boot order in the BIOS.
C. Make the second disk active under the disk management tool.
D. Rebuild the array using the hardware RAID tool at boot.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
An administrator sets up a wireless device that they will need to manage across the Internet. Which of the following
security measures would BEST prevent unauthorized access to the device from the Internet?
A. Set the channels to wireless 802.11n only
B. Change the default username and password
C. Enable the wireless AP\\’s MAC filtering
D. Enable the wireless AP\\’s WPA2 security
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following types of security threats is used to attempt to learn a user\\’s password?
A. Spoofing
B. Spear phishing
C. Zero-day
D. Brute forcing
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
A technician would MOST likely use Windows PE on a Windows 7 system to perform which of the following functions?
A. Install new programs outside of the OS
B. Fix file system issues outside of the OS
C. Print specialized reports of processes starting at boot
D. Install new hardware with appropriate drivers
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Which of the following NTFS security settings overrides all other settings?
A. Deny
B. Modify
C. Read
D. Write
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 5
Which of the following BEST describes the Guest account on a Windows system?
A. This account is designed to have the ability to set permissions for other users on the system. Users of this account
have the capability to perform any operation or task on the system.
B. This account is designed to provide basic permissions for completing common daily tasks. Users of this account are
restricted from performing things like installing new software.
C. This account is designed for users who require specific administrator rights or permissions. Users of this account are
restricted from installing software but can change time zones
D. This account is designed for users who require temporary access to a computer and do not need to store user-specific settings. Users of this account have very limited permissions.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
A Linux system powers on but fails to complete the boot process. Which of the following should be checked FIRST to
correct the issue?
A. Sudo
B. lilo/grub
C. ifconfig
D. ntldr
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 7
A technician is recycling PCs to be reused by a middle school.
Which of the following methods is MOST appropriate for ensuring data has been removed from the PCs?
A. Standard formatting
B. HD drilling
C. Low-level formatting
D. HD partitioning
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 8
A customer\\’s computer is powered on and working, but the customer is unable to get to any wired network resources,
shared drives, printers, or the Internet. Which of the following command-line tools should be used to troubleshoot this
scenario?
A. Ping
B. iwconfig
C. nbtstat
D. Nslookup
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
Turnstiles and other mantraps will prevent which of the following security threats?
A. Shoulder surfing
B. Tailgating
C. Rootkits
D. Viruses
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://www.infosecpro.com/a_security_engineering/se13.htm

 

QUESTION 10
A technician received 300 old desktops following a recent computer upgrade. After taking inventory of the old machines,
the technician must destroy the data on the HDDs. Which of the following would be the MOST effective method to
accomplish this task?
A. Drill
B. Hammer
C. Low-level format
D. Degaussing
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 11
A user\\’s personal settings are not saving, and a technician suspects the user\\’s local Windows profile is corrupt. The technician wants to check the size of the ntuser.dat file, but it does not appear in the user\\’s profile directory. Which of
the following Control Panel utilities should the technician use to correct this?
A. Folder Options
B. Sync Center
C. Display Settings
D. User Accounts
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
A SOHO location is being remodeled and the users are concerned about unauthorized traffic on their network during the
remodel. The WLAN needs to be able to allow various types of devices to securely connect 24 hours a day while
requiring the least amount of overhead to manage. Which of the following security implementations would MOST likely
be implemented?
A. Setting encryption
B. Resetting all user-names and passwords
C. Assign static IP addresses
D. Enable MAC filtering
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
A company recently had a security breach and is now required to increase the security on their workstations. A technician has been tasked to harden all the workstations on the network. Which of the following should the technician
do?
A. Enable Windows automatic updates
B. Enable screensaver required passwords
C. Enable MAC filtering
D. Enable wireless encryption
Correct Answer: B
Reference: http://windows.microsoft.com/is-is/windows-vista/use-your-windows-password-for-your-screen-saverpassword

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QUESTION 1
SIMULATION
You need to configure your mobile device to send and receive electronic messages from your company.
You must use the company\\’s WLAN as all e-mail services are on default non-secure ports.
The company\\’s WLAN is broadcasting across the company for easier access. Both incoming and outgoing servers
require login credentials.
Use the following parameters:
1.
Email address tech@techies com
2.
Password P@SSwOrd
3.
Pop techies com Port 110 Security. None
4.
IMAP techies com Port 993 Security SSL
5.
smtp.techies.com Port 465 Security: TLS
6.
Company SSID Techies
7.
Security WPA2
8.
Passphrase P@SSwOrd
9.
SSID is not broadcasted
Instructions: You are not authorized to use the Company\\’s WLAN The outgoing server does not require login
credentials. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit your answer.
Configure Mobile Device
Instruction: Configure the settings to send and receive electronic messages from the company.
Update the mobile device\\’s parameters to fit the criteria.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please click the Reset All button.examscode 220-1001 exam questions q1 examscode 220-1001 exam questions q1-1 examscode 220-1001 exam questions q1-2

A. Check the answer in explanation.
Correct Answer: A
Since we are instructed to not use the company\\’s WLAN we only need to worry about the email settings and ignore the
WiFi and Networks tab. On the MAIL tab enter information as shown below:

examscode 220-1001 exam questions q1-3

That should be all that is needed.
Tips: The mobile has to save button in the top right corner, your instructions might cover it so watch out for that, first is IMAP
then SMTP.

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following peripheral types is MOST likely to be used to input actions into a PC?
A. Webcam
B. Mouse
C. Monitor
D. Optical drive
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
A company offers server out-of-the-box computer configuration to its clients. A client request several new computers for
its location, which will be used by the guest to check-in upon arrival and fill out contact information. Which of the following
configurations would BEST the computer needs?
A. Touch screen kiosk
B. Thick client
C. CAD workstation
D. Virtualization host computer
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
A user is no longer able to browse the Internet after returning from vacation. The user is able to log in and navigate to
the local intranet, but not to any outside sites. A technician pings a well-known website by name but gets no reply. The
the technician then pings its IP address and gets a reply.
Which of the following commands will MOST likely resolve the issue?
A. ipconfig /all
B. ipconfig /flushdns
C. ipconfig /release
D. ipconfig /setclassid
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
The network administrator has changed the IP address of the computer from 192.168.1.20 to 10.10.10.20 and now jane, a
user is unable to connect to file shares on ComputerA from the computer using the computer name.
INSTRUCTIONS
Using the available tools, resolve the connectivity issues.
After troubleshooting the issue, verify a successful connection.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation? please click the Reset All button.examscode 220-1001 exam questions q5 examscode 220-1001 exam questions q5-1 examscode 220-1001 exam questions q5-2

A. See the
Correct Answer: A
We need to flush the DNS to have the new IP address assigned to the same computer name. Use the ipconfig/flushdns
command.

 

QUESTION 6
An associate is seeking advice on which device to purchase for a friend who is a business owner. The friend needs the
ability to chat activity while keeping in contact with the home office.
Which of the following would be the BEST recommendation?
A. Smartwatch
B. Fitness monitor
C. Global positioning sensor
D. Portable hotspot
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Which of the following has a P4 connector to provide a 12V output?
A. Molex connector
B. 24-pin adapter
C. SCSI cable
D. eSATA cable
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
A technician needs to call a user\\’s cellular provider to troubleshoot a network speed issue with the user\\’s mobile
device. Which of the following technologies is the technician troubleshooting?
A. Long-term evolution
B. Near-field communication
C. Radiofrequency ID
D. Z-wave
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 9
A technician is setting up a VM for use in testing software deployments. The VM is offline, but the hypervisor is not.
Which of the following settings should the technician change to resolve this issue?
A. Virtual security
B. Virtual storage
C. Virtual CPU
D. Virtual switch
E. Virtual RAM
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
A technician is configuring a high-performance workstation. The technician needs to choose storage for the boot drive
with the highest performance possible. Which of the following drive types BEST meets this requirement?
A. MicroSD
B. 15K rpm
C. NVMe
D. USB flash
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
A customer is using a cloud storage program that maintains a copy of local files on the cloud storage servers. The WiFi
network is not very fast, and the customer uses bandwidth-intensive video streaming all day. Which of the following
parameters should be adjusted to keep the cloud storage program from using too much bandwidth?
A. Synchronization settings
B. Wireless settings
C. Video streaming settings
D. QoS settings
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 12
A company has very strict rules regarding proprietary information leaving the premises. All computers host proprietary
information. A technician is called to repair a computer on-site at the company\\’s corporate office. The technician
identifies the troubleshooting steps to create a plan of action. The technician determines the computer needs to be
taken off-site for repair.
Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
A. Check corporate policies for guidance.
B. Get authorization from the manager.
C. Delete proprietary data before leaving the building.
D. Remove the HDD and send the device for repair.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which of the following connector types is used to terminate household telephone cabling?
A. RG-6
B. RJ-11
C. RJ-45
D. RG-59
Correct Answer: B

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Oracle Database Administration I | Oracle University: https://education.oracle.com/oracle-database-administration-i/pexam_1Z0-082

[2020.4] Oracle 1Z0-082 exam practice questions(1-4)

QUESTION 1
The SALES_Q1 and USERS tablespaces exist in one of your databases and TEMP is a temporary tablespace.
Segment creation is not deferred.
You execute this command:examscode 1z0-082 exam questions q1

Which three statements must be true so that the SALES user can create tables in SALES_Q1? (Choose three.)
A. The sales user must have a quota on the TEMP tablespace
B. The sales user must have a quota on the SALES_Q1 tablespace to hold the initial extends of all tables they plan to
create in their schema
C. The sales user must have been granted the CREATE SESSION privilege
D. The sales user must have their quota on the user’s tablespace removed
E. The sales user must have a quota on the SALES_Q1 tablespace to hold all the rows to be inserted into any table in
their schema
F. The sales user must have been granted the CREATE TABLE privilege
Correct Answer: BDF

 

QUESTION 2
Which two statements are true about the DUAL table? (Choose two.)
A. It can be accessed only by the SYS user
B. It consists of a single row and single column of VARCHAR2 data type
C. It can display multiple rows but only a single column
D. It can be used to display only constants or pseudo columns
E. It can be accessed by any user who has the SELECT privilege in any schema
F. It can display multiple rows and columns
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/DUAL_table

 

QUESTION 3
You want to apply the principle of Least Privilege in all your live databases.
One of your requirements is to revoke unnecessary privileges from all users who have them using Privilege Analysis.
Which three types of analyses can be done using the DBMS_PRIVILEGE_CAPTURE package? (Choose three.)
A. analysis of all privileges used by all users including administrative users in the database
B. analysis of all privileges used by all users but excluding administrative users in the database
C. analysis of privileges that a user has on their own schema objects that they did not use
D. analysis of privileges that a user has on their own schema objects that they did use
E. analysis of privileges granted directly to a role that is then used by a user who has been granted that role
F. analysis of privileges granted indirectly to a role that is then used by a user who has been granted that role
Correct Answer: ACF
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/database/121/ARPLS/d_priv_prof.htm#ARPLS74328

 

QUESTION 4
Examine the description of the CUSTOMERS table:examscode 1z0-082 exam questions q4

For customers whose income level has a value, you want to display the first name and due amount as 5% of their credit
limit. Customers whose due amount is null should not be displayed.
Which query should be used?
A. SELECT cust_first_name, cust_credit_limit * .05 AS DUE_AMOUNT FROM customers WHERE cust_income_level
IS NOT NULL AND due_amount IS NOT NULL;
B. SELECT cust_first_name, cust_credit_limit * .05 AS DUE_AMOUNT FROM customers WHERE cust_income_level
!= NULL AND cust_credit_level !=NULL;
C. SELECT cust_first_name, cust_credit_limit * .05 AS DUE_AMOUNT FROM customers WHERE cust_income_level
NULL AND due_amount NULL;
D. SELECT cust_first_name, cust_credit_limit * .05 AS DUE_AMOUNT FROM customers WHERE cust_income_level
!= NULL AND due_amount != NULL;
E. SELECT cust_first_name, cust_credit_limit * .05 AS DUE_AMOUNT FROM customers WHERE cust_income_level
IS NOT NULL AND cust_credit_limit IS NOT NULL;
Correct Answer: E

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Latest Oracle 1Z0-532 exam List

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[2020.4] Oracle 1Z0-532 exam practice questions (1-4)

QUESTION 1
Identify three valid application settings. (Choose three.)
A. MaxNumDocAttachments
B. UseSecurityForEntities
C. UseSecurityForValue
D. Va1idationAccount
E. SupportSubmissionPhaseforEntity
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 2
Identify the two true statements about rule types in FM. (Choose two.)
A. The Dynamic rule type allows you to calculate both parent and base accounts.
B. The input rule type prevents users from entering data into specific cells or slices of cells using Hs.No input.
C. Calculate, Dynamic, Allocation, Input, No Input, Translate, Consolidate, Transactions, and Equity pickup are all valid
rule types.
D. If you need to calculate Gross Margin %, use the Translate rule type.
E. Calculation rules are run only with FM specific calculation commands in Financial Management; no general VB
commands.
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 3
A custom function in rules is useful for:
A. Organizing rules into subsets of code
B. Controlling the ending of an If/Then
C. Writing code that will be repeated in multiple places
D. Defining conjunctions to be used along with variables
E. Custom functions are not possible in FM,
Correct Answer: C


QUESTION 4
Given the following syntax in a business rule:examscode 1z0-532 exam questions q4

Identify the subroutine.
A. Calculate ()
B. strview
C. Hs.Exp
D. DIFFERENCE
E. Hs.SCENARIO.DEFAULT VIEW( ” “)
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E57185_01/HFMAD/ch12s01s03s04.html

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[2020.4] Oracle 1Z0-808 exam practice questions (1-4)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following exception will be thrown due to the statement given here?
int array[] = new int[-2];
A. NullPointerException
B. NegativeArraySizeException
C. ArrayIndexOutOfBoundsException
D. IndexOutOfBoundsException
E. This statement does not cause an exception.
Correct Answer: B
In a given statement we can see that, we have passed negative value for creating int array, which results in a
NegativeArraySize Exception. Hence option B is correct. Option A is incorrect as it is thrown when an application
attempts to use null in a case where an object is required. Option D is incorrect as IndexOutOfBoundsException threw
to indicate that an index of some sort (such as to an array, to a string, or to a vector) is out of range. REFERENCE
rhttpy/docs.oracle.com/iavase/S/docs/api/java/lang/NegativeArraySizeException.html

 

QUESTION 2
Given: public class ColorTest {
public static void main(String[] args) {
String[] colors = {“red”, “blue”,”green”,”yellow”,”maroon”,”cyan”};
int count = 0;
for (String c : colors) {
if (count >= 4) {
break;
}
else {
continue;
}
if (c.length() >= 4) {
colors[count] = c.substring(0,3);
}
count++;
}
System.out.println(colors[count]);
}
}
What is the result?
A. Yellow
B. Maroon
C. Compilation fails
D. A StringIndexOutOfBoundsException is thrown at runtime.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The line, if (c.length() >= 4) {, is never reached. This causes a compilation error.
Note: The continue statement skips the current iteration of a for, while, or do-while loop. An unlabeled break statement
terminates the innermost switch, for, while, or do-while statement, but a labeled break terminates an outer statement.

 

QUESTION 3
Given:examscode 1z0-808 exam questions q3

What is the result?
A. int main 1
B. Object main 1
C. String main 1
D. Compilation fails
E. An exception is thrown at runtime
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Given: And given the commands:examscode 1z0-808 exam questions q4

What is the result?
A. TRUE null
B. true false
C. false false
D. true true
E. A ClassCastException is thrown at runtime.
Correct Answer: D

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[2020.4] Oracle 1Z0-813 exam practice questions (1-4)

QUESTION 1
Given the code fragment:examscode 1z0-813 exam questions q1

If exceptions occur when closing the FileWriter object and when retrieving the JString class object, which exception
the object is propagated up to the caller of the process file method?
A. java.lang.Exception
B. java.io.IOException
C. java.lang.ClassNotFoundException
D. java.lang.NoSuchClassException
Correct Answer: C
ClassNotFoundException is thrown when an application tries to load in a class through its string name using:
*
The forName method in class Class.
*
The findSystemClass method in class ClassLoader .
*
The loadClass method in class ClassLoader.
but no definition for the class with the specified name could be found.
References: https://docs.oracle.com/javase/7/docs/api/java/lang/ClassNotFoundException.html

 

QUESTION 2
Given the code fragments:examscode 1z0-813 exam questions q2

What is the result?
A. A compilation error occurs at line n2.
B. The program prints Run… and throws an exception.
C. Run… Call…
D. A compilation error occurs at line n1.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
Given:examscode 1z0-813 exam questions q3

Which result is possible?
A. Compilation fails.
B. L1 L2 L3
C. L2 L3
D. L1 L3
E. L3
Correct Answer: B
The Runnable interface should be implemented by any class whose instances are intended to be executed by a thread.
The class must define a method of no arguments called run. This interface is designed to provide a common protocol for
objects that wish to execute code while they are active.
Reference: http://docs.oracle.com/javase/7/docs/api/java/lang/Runnable.html

 

QUESTION 4
Given the fragment:examscode 1z0-813 exam questions q4

Which code fragment, when inserted at line n1, enables the code to print ABCD?
A. String str = sList.stream().reduce(“”,(s1, s2) -> s1.concat(s2));
B. String str = sList.stream().reduce(“A”,(s1, s2) -> s1.concat(s2));
C. String str = sList.stream().reduce((s1, s2) -> s1.concat(s2));
D. String str = sList.stream().reduce(“A”,String::concat);
Correct Answer: A
The java.util.Arrays.asList(T… a) returns a fixed-size list backed by the specified array.
Note: Use the following import statements to be able to run the code.
import java.util.Arrays;
import java.util.List;
Incorrect Answers:
B, D: Output is AABCD
Reference: https://www.tutorialspoint.com/java/util/arrays_aslist.htm

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[2020.4] Oracle 1Z0-815 exam practice questions (1-4)

QUESTION 1
Given:examscode 1z0-815 exam questions q1

What is the type of x?
A. char
B. List
C. String
D. List
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
Given the code fragment:examscode 1z0-815 exam questions q2

What is the output?
A. The compilation fails.
B. [-1, -2, -3]
C. [-3, -2, -1]
D. A runtime exception is thrown.
Correct Answer: A

examscode 1z0-815 exam questions q2-1

 

QUESTION 3
Given the formula to calculate a monthly mortgage payment:examscode 1z0-815 exam questions q3

How can you code the formula?
A. m = p * (r * Math.pow(1 + r, n) / (Math.pow(1 + r, n) – 1));
B. m = p * ((r * Math.pow(1 + r, n) / (Math.pow(1 + r, n)) – 1)); r * Math.pow(1 + r, n) / Math.pow(1 + r, n) – 1;
C. m = p *
D. m = p * (r * Math.pow(1 + r, n) / Math.pow(1 + r, n) – 1);
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
Given: What is the result?examscode 1z0-815 exam questions q4

A. Working Unknown
B. Unknown
C. Tuesday Unknown
D. The compilation fails.
E. Tuesday
F. Working
Correct Answer: B

examscode 1z0-815 exam questions q4-1

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MySQL 5.7 Database Administrator | Oracle University:https://education.oracle.com/mysql-57-database-administrator/pexam_1Z0-888

[2020.4] Oracle 1Z0-888 exam practice questions (1-4)

QUESTION 1
Consider these global status variables: Which two conclusions can be made from the output? (Choose two.)examscode 1z0-888 exam questions q1

A. There are 140 Performance Schema threads at the time of the output.
B. There are 510 connections to MySQL at the time of the output.
C. The thread cache has been configured with thread_cache_size set to at least 6.
D. There are more connections being idle than executing queries.
E. All max_connections were in use at 2018-03-22 14:54:06
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 2
Which three allocate memory per thread in MySQL? (Choose three.)
A. query cache
B. thread cache
C. read buffer
D. internal temporary table
E. sort buffer
F. InnoDB buffer pool instance
Correct Answer: CEF
Reference: https://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/5.6/en/memory-use.html

 

QUESTION 3
Is it true that binary backups always take less space than text backups?
A. Yes, because binary backups only contain data, and not statements required to insert data into the tables.
B. No, because text backups can have optimizations, which make them smaller, such as updating many rows at once.
C. No, because if InnoDB tables contain many empty pages, they could take more space than the INSERT statements.
D. Yes, because even if InnoDB tables contain many empty pages, text backups have empty INSERT statements for
them.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
You have the following in your my.cnf configuration file:
[mysqld] default_authentication_plugin=sha256_password
You want to create a new user who will be connecting from the IP address 192.0.2.10, and you want to use the
authentication plug-in that implements SHA-256 hashing for user account passwords. Which two statements would
create a user named Webdesign for this IP address with the password of imbatman using a SHA_256 password hash?
(Choose two.)
A. CREATE USER `webdesign\\’@\\’192.0.2.10\\’ IDENTIFIED AS sha256_user WITH sha256_password `imbatman\\’;
B. CREATE USER `webdesign\\’@\\’192.0.2.10\\’ IDENTIFIED BY `iambatman\\’;
C. CREATE USER `webdesign\\’@\\’192.0.2.10\\’ IDENTIFIED WITH sha256_password BY `imbatman\\’;
D. CREATE USER WITH sha256_password `sha256_user\\’@\\’192.0.2.10\\’ IDENTIFIED AS `webdesign\\’ USING
`imbatman\\’;
E. CREATE USER `webdesign\\’@\\’192.0.2.10\\’ WITH mysql_native_password USING SHA265 BY `imbatman\\’;
F. CREATE USER `webdesign\\’@\\’192.0.2.10\\’ IDENTIFIED BY SHA265 AS `imbatman\\’;
Correct Answer: BF
Reference: https://dev.mysql.com/doc/refman/8.0/en/sha256-pluggable-authentication.html

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Oracle CX Commerce 2019 Implementation Essentials:https://education.oracle.com/oracle-commerce-cloud-2019-implementation-essentials/pexam_1Z0-1068

[2020.4] Oracle 1Z0-1068 exam practice questions (1-4)

QUESTION 1
When configuring sites, you have two properties related to price groups: the default price group and additional price
groups. Consider the following scenario:
Site US has the US Dollar price group set as its default price group.
Site Canada has the Canadian Dollar price group as its default price group but needs a second price group for the US dollars.
It can either share the US Dollar price group with Site US or have a separate US Dollars2 price group.
Under what condition should Site Canada use the separate US Dollars2 as its additional price group?
A. The two countries have different sales tax rate calculations
B. Reports in Oracle Business Intelligence Enterprise Edition need to separate sales totals in US dollars by site
C. Site Canada has two languages and two currencies and therefore needs dedicated price groups to accurately
display prices
D. US dollar prices differ between Site US and Site Canada
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
An organization has implemented loyalty points as a payment currency by creating a payment gateway extension with
loyalty points as one of the payment method types and configuring the Custom Currency Payment webhook. What
additional step does the organization need to do to add loyalty points as a payment option on the Payments Method
widget?
A. Create a custom widget extension called Loyalty Payment and add it to the checkout layout
B. Create a new checkout layout with custom widgets for payment
C. Nothing. The Payments Method widget already includes loyalty points as a payment option
D. Add the baseline Loyalty Payment widget to the checkout layout on the Design page
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E91846_01/Cloud.12-17/ExtendingCC/html/s1907useloyaltywidgets01.html

 

QUESTION 3
You need to develop an integration with an analytics platform that tracks shopper activity across all Commerce Cloud
pages and provides its own JavaScript library. Which statement describes how you can implement this use case in
Commerce Cloud?
A. Create a custom non-global widget that includes the analytics JavaScript library and upload to Commerce Cloud as a
Storefront extension which will automatically apply to all layouts.
B. Create a custom global widget with a display template that includes an inline script reference to the analytics
JavaScript library and upload to Commerce Cloud as a Storefront extension.
C. On the “Application-Level JavaScript” tab on the Settings Page, add the URL for the analytics JavaScript library so
that it will automatically apply to all layouts.
D. Create a custom global widget that includes the analytics JavaScript library and uploads to Commerce Cloud as a
Storefront extension.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 4
What are two reasons to use the CC-Storage library to save data objects in local storage? (Choose two.)
A. to support browsers using private browsing mode
B. to support Firefox browsers only
C. to support Chrome browsers only
D. to support iOS devices using Safari
Correct Answer: AD

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practice questions

QUESTION 1

An engineer wants to add a domain to a numeric E.164 alias dialed by an H.323 endpoint. Which opinion is the Cisco

recommended method to add this domain in the Expressway configurations? 

A. transforms 

B. user policy 

C. service preference 

D. call policy 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 2

Which protocol is used to communicate codec capabilities and Real-Time Transport Protocol ports? 

A. Real-Time Transport Control Protocol 

B. Session Description Protocol 

C. H.460 

D. Assent 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 3

Which description of the steps one must take to build a TMS phone book is true? 

A. Connect TMS to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager contact list files, create a phone book, connect the files

to a phone book, and set on systems. 

B. Export a .csv file to the TMS database from AD or Outlook, create a phone book, connect the file to a phone book,

and set on systems. 

C. Create a contact list, create a phone book, connect the contact list to the phone book, and set on systems. 

D. Create a source, create a phone book, connect the source to the phone book, and set on systems. 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 4

Which two statements about the assignment of endpoints to a subzone are true? (Choose two.) 

A. A registration restriction rule must be configured that matches the endpoint\\’s alias or IP subnet. 

B. Endpoints making a traversal call must be registered to the traversal subzone. 

C. By default, all endpoints are registered to the default subzone. 

D. By default, all endpoints are registered to the neighbor subzone. 

E. A subzone membership rule must be configured that matches the endpoint\\’s alias or IP subnet. 

Correct Answer: CE 

 

QUESTION 5

Which statement about integrating a Cisco Expressway with a resilient and scalable Cisco Meeting Server deployment

is true? 

A. Neither Expressway cores nor Expressway edges can be integrated with Cisco Meeting Server. 

B. Only Cisco Expressway cores can be integrated with Cisco Meeting Server. 

C. Only Expressway edges can be integrated with Cisco Meeting Server. 

D. Expressway cores and Expressway edges can be integrated with Cisco Meeting Server. 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 6

Which group of items must be configured when adding a Cisco Meeting Server toTMS before the server can be used in

scheduled conferences? 

A. DNS address, numeric ID base, numeric ID quantity 

B. domain, numeric ID base, conference ID range 

C. MACaddress, numeric ID base, numeric ID quantity 

D. domain, numeric ID base, numeric ID quantity 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 7

Which Hybrid Services connector provides integration between on-premises calendaring application and Cisco

Collaboration Cloud? 

A. Calendar Connector 

B. Call Control 

C. Management 

D. Directory Connector 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 8

An administrator notices that when alias information is changed manually on an endpoint that is registered to an

Expressway, the changes are successful, but then revert back to their original state the following day. Which cause is

the most likely? 

A. The changes are not being saved properly on the endpoint. 

B. A template is being persistently pushed to the endpoint from TMS. 

C. A template is being pushed persistently to the endpoint from the Expressway. 

D. The alias information of the endpoint is duplicated on another endpoint. 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 9

Which statement about Microsoft Skype for Business interoperability with Cisco Meeting Server is true? 

A. Calls cannot be place between S4B and Cisco Meeting App users 

B. Local directories can always be used between S4B users and CMA 

C. Chat can be used between S4B and Cisco Meeting App users 

D. Chat can be used between S4B and Cisco Meeting Server Spaces 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 10

Where in the TMS application does an engineer add individual endpoints or infrastructure to the TMS database? 

A. System > Navigator 

B. System > System Overview 

C. System > Provisioning 

D. System > Manage Dial Plan 

Correct Answer: A 

 

QUESTION 11

Which type of customization options are available on the Cisco Meeting Server? 

A. customizing protocols used 

B. branding spaces 

C. customizing aliases used 

D. branding the WebRTC clients 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 12

An engineer must match any incoming call to the Expressway that is searching for an E.164 address of only 6 digits and

append the domain cisco.com to the end. Which pattern match and replace string using regular expressions accomplish

this task? (Choose two.) 

A. pattern match: ({6}*) 

B. pattern match ({6}\d) 

C. pattern match ({5}\d) 

D. replace string: \[email protected] 

E. replace string: \[email protected] 

F. replace string: \[email protected] 

Correct Answer: BE 

 

QUESTION 13

Which two elements of authentication credentials are stored in the local database of the Expressway? (Choose two.) 

A. username 

B. user authority 

C. CA authority 

D. crypto hash key 

E. password 

Correct Answer: AE

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Latest Cisco 500-301 exam practice

QUESTION 1
Which feature can be customized in your Cisco WebEx Personal Room view?
A. Change your PIN.
B. Automatically lock your room.
C. Configure alternate hosts.
D. Change the drink image.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
What is a Spark Phone?
A. UC VoIP and video phones that associate with an individual user
B. UC VoIP phones that associate with an individual user
C. UC VoIP phones that associate with a location
D. UC VoIP and video phones that associate with an individual user or location
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
Which alias do you dial from the video endpoint to start a Cisco WebEx Personal Room meeting?
A. @
B. /join/
C. @WebEx.com
D. /meet/
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which path do you take to configure the Automatic Lock feature in your Cisco WebEx Personal Room?
A. My WebEx > My Personal Room > Automatic Lock
B. Preferences > My Personal Room > Automatic Lock
C. My WebEx > Preferences > Automatic Lock
D. My WebEx > Preferences > My Personal Room > Automatic Lock
Correct Answer: B
https://collaborationhelp.cisco.com/article/en-us/8zi8tq

QUESTION 5
Which feature can be customized in your Cisco WebEx Personal Room view?
A. Change your PIN.
B. Change the desk image.
C. Automatically lock your room.
D. Configure alternate hosts.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
Which path do you take to configure the Automatic Lock feature in your Cisco WebEx Personal Room?
A. My WebEx > My Personal Room > Automatic Lock
B. My WebEx > Preferences > My Personal Room > Automatic Lock
C. My WebEx > Preferences > Automatic Lock
D. Preferences > My Personal Room > Automatic Lock
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 7
Which option do you select in the WebEx toolbar in Outlook to invite people to your Personal Room?
A. Select Schedule Personal Room Meeting.
B. Select Schedule WebEx Meeting
C. Select Invite and Remind
D. Select Meet Now
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 8
Which result occurs when you leave your Cisco WebEx Personal Room meeting?
A. All other participant are still connected
B. All other participants are disconnected, unless another participant is made the host.
C. All other participants are still connected, even if another participant is made the host.
D. All other participants are disconnected, even if another participant is made the host
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
\Which formats can a Skype for Business user dial to connect to a meeting in Cisco WebEx Meeting Center?
A. @lync.webex.com
B. [email protected]
C. .@ lync.webex.com
D. @. webex.com
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
What happens to participants who try to access your Cisco WebEx Personal Room when the Lock option is enabled?
A. Those participants are disconnected.
B. Those participants hear a busy message and then are disconnected.
C. Those participants are presented with busy message and the option to join the meeting or wait until you are free.
D. Those participants are redirected to a virtual waiting room.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What is a Spark Room?
A. video endpoints that are associated with a user or location
B. video endpoints that are associated with a location
C. video endpoints that are associated with a user
D. UC VoIP and video phones that are associated with a user
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which formats can a Skype for Business user dial to connect to a meeting in Cisco WebEx Meeting Center?
A. [email protected]
B. [email protected]
C. @.webex.com
D. @lync.webex.com
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
Which support tools option is available in the Cisco WebEx Support Center?
A. Monitor all sessions and agent activity at the queue and support-representative levels.
B. Set up queues with rules-based routing, by availability or skill set.
C. Allow recording of support sessions manually or automatically.
D. Allow technicians to reboot and reconnect.
Correct Answer: C

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Latest updates Cisco 400-101 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1

Which two protocols are used by the management plane?(choose two) 

A. ISSU 

B. BGP 

C. Telnet 

D. OSPF 

E. FTP 

F. DTP 

Correct Answer: CE 

 

QUESTION 2

Which two statements about IPv6 6to4 tunnels are true? (Choose two) 

A. They are point-to-multipoint tunnels 

B. Sites use addresses from the 2002::/16 prefix 

C. They rely on GRE encapsulation 

D. They are point-to-point tunnels 

E. Sites use addresses from the link-local scope 

Correct Answer: AB 

 

QUESTION 3

What is the source MAC address of a BPDU frame that is sent out of port? 

A. the same as the MAC address in the bridge ID 

B. the lowest MAC address on the switch 

C. the highest MAC address on the switch 

D. the MAC address of the individual port that is sending the BPDU 

Correct Answer: D 

 

QUESTION 4

One of your clients which is in the manufacture area, is after a solution in order to manage all his fog nodes. Which

management tools best suits his needs? 

A. Cisco Connected Grid Network Management System 

B. Cisco Prime Infrastructure 

C. Cisco Network Control System 

D. Cisco Fog Director 

Correct Answer: B 

 

QUESTION 5

Which two conditions can cause unicast flooding? (Choose two) 

A. symmetryc routing 

B. recurring TCNs 

C. rultiple MAC address in the Layer 2 forwarding table 

D. RIB table overflow 

E. forwarding table overflow 

Correct Answer: BE 

 

QUESTION 6

Which two statements about OSPFv3 are true? (Choose two.) 

A. It supports unicast address families for IPv4 and IPv6. 

B. It supports unicast address families for IPv6 only. 

C. It supports only one address family per instance. 

D. It supports the use of a cluster ID for loop prevention. 

E. It supports multicast address families for IPv4 and IPv6. 

F. It supports multicast address families for IPv6 only. 

Correct Answer: AC 

 

QUESTION 7

Refer to the exhibit. Which tag will be applied to 172.16.50.0/24 route?leads4pass 400-101 exam question q7

A. 10
B. 20
C. 30
D. 40
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Drag and drop the OSPF network type on the left to the correct category of timers on the right.leads4pass 400-101 exam question q8

Correct Answer:

leads4pass 400-101 exam question q8-1

 

QUESTION 9
Unicast message to acknowledge.
Select and Place:leads4pass 400-101 exam question q9

Correct Answer:

leads4pass 400-101 exam question q9-1

 

QUESTION 10
Which values does EIGRP use to determine the metric for a summary address?
A. A default fixed value
B. The average of the component metrics
C. The lowest metric among the component routes
D. The highest metric among the component routes
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 11
In an MPLS-VPN environment, what is the effect of configuring an identical set of route targets for a particular VRF but
then configuring nonidentical RD accross multiple PE devices?
A. The routes are rejected by remote PE because they have a different RD than its routes.
B. The routes propagate to the remore PE, but the PE never installs them in its forwarding table.
C. The routes are correctly managed by the control plane, but there are instances where routes take up twice as much
memory.
D. The routes are not sent to any remote PE with a differnt RD.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Which two events occur when a packet is decapsulated in a GRE tunnel? (Choose two.)
A. The destination IPv4 address in the IPv4 payload is used to forward the packet.
B. The TTL of the payload packet is decremented.
C. The source IPv4 address in the IPv4 payload is used to forward the packet
D. The TTL of the payload packet is incremented
E. The version field in the GRE header is incremented
F. The GRE keepalive mechanism is reset
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 13
Which two actions can you take to prevent routes from becoming stuck in active? (Choose two)
A. Manually increase the EIGRP metrics on interfaces connected to successors.
B. Use port channeling to aggregate multiple EIGRP interfaces
C. Increase the time a router waits before it declares routes stuck in active
D. Increase the EIGRP K values on low-bandwidth interfaces
E. Increase the Hello timers on all EIGRP interfaces
F. Design the network so that it uses the lowest possible number of queries
Correct Answer: CF

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Exam 70-779: Analyzing and Visualizing Data with Microsoft Excel:https://www.microsoft.com/en-us/learning/exam-70-779.aspx

Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Consume and Transform Data by Using Microsoft Excel (30-35%)
  • Model Data (35-40%)
  • Visualize Data (30-35%)

Who should take this exam?

Candidates for this exam should have a strong understanding of how to use Microsoft Excel to perform data analysis. Candidates should be able to consume, transform, model, and visualize data in Excel. Candidates should also be able to configure and manipulate data in PowerPivot, PivotTables, and PivotCharts. Candidates may include BI professionals,
data analysts, and other roles responsible for analyzing data with Excel.

Microsoft MCSA 70-779 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
You have a query that retrieves customers and their locations. You have a sample of the data as shown in the following
table.

leads4pass 70-779 exam question q1

Additional customers and locations are added frequently.
You need to transform the data as shown in the following table.

leads4pass 70-779 exam question q1-2

What should you do?
A. Select the Locations columns and then select Split Column by Delimiter. Use a comma as the delimiter and split into
rows.
B. Select the Locations columns and then select Split Column by Delimiter. Use a comma as the delimiter and split into
columns.
C. Select the Customer columns, and then click Unpivot Columns.
D. Select the Customer columns, and then click Unpivot Other Columns.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
You have a query as shown in the following exhibit.leads4pass 70-779 exam question q2

You need to ensure that the data only contains rows that have a valid date.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer are in the correct order.
Select and Place:leads4pass 70-779 exam question q2-1

Correct Answer:

leads4pass 70-779 exam question q2-2

 

QUESTION 3
You have an Excel spreadsheet that contains a PivotChart.
You install Microsoft Power BI Publisher for Excel.
You need to add a tile for the PivotChart to a Power BI dashboard.
What should you do?
A. From the Power BI tab in Excel, click Pin.
B. From the File menu in Excel, click Publish.
C. From powerbi.com, upload the excel workbook.
D. From powerbi.com, click Get apps.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
Start of repeated scenario
You have six workbook queries that each extracts a table from a Microsoft Azure SQL database. The tables are loaded
to the data model, but the data is not loaded to any worksheets. The data model is shown in the Data Model exhibit.
Your company has 100 product subcategories and more than 10,000 products.
End of repeated scenario.
You need to create a measure named [Sales Monthly RT] that calculates a running total of [Sales] for each date within a
month as shown in the following exhibit.leads4pass 70-779 exam question q4

How should you complete the DAX formula? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each
correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

leads4pass 70-779 exam question q4-1

Correct Answer:

leads4pass 70-779 exam question q4-2

 

QUESTION 5
Start of repeated scenario
You have six workbook queries that each extracts a table from a Microsoft Azure SQL database. The tables are loaded
to the data model, but the data is not loaded to any worksheets. The data model is shown in the Data Model exhibit.leads4pass 70-779 exam question q5

Your company has 100 product subcategories and more than 10,000 products.
End of repeated scenario.
You need to create a chart as shown in the following exhibit.

leads4pass 70-779 exam question q5-1

Which field should you use for each area? To answer, drag the appropriate fields to the correct areas. Each field may be
used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

leads4pass 70-779 exam question q5-2

Correct Answer:

leads4pass 70-779 exam question q5-3

 

QUESTION 6
You have a pie chart.
You need the wedges of the pie chart to be separated as shown in the following exhibit.

leads4pass 70-779 exam question q6

A. Change the chart type to Pie of Pie.
B. Right-click the pie chart, click Expand/Collapse, and then click Expand.
C. Right-click the pie chart, click Expand/Collapse, and Then click Expand Entire Field
D. Select a wedge of the pie chart and then drag the wedge.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
Your company has sales offices in several cities.
You create a table that the represents the amount of sales in each city by month as shown in the exhibit.leads4pass 70-779 exam question q7

You need to ensure that alt values lower than 250 display a red icon. The solution must ensure that all values greater
than 500 display a green icon.
Solution: You create a new conditional formatting rule that uses the Format only cells that contain rule type.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
You have a model that contain data relating to corporate profits. The model contains a measure named Profit.
You need to create a PivoTable to display the Profit measure in three different formats by using the Show Value As
feature. The PivoTable must produce the result shown in the following table.leads4pass 70-779 exam question q8

NOTE: Each correct selections is worth one point.
Hot Area:

leads4pass 70-779 exam question q8-1

Correct Answer:

leads4pass 70-779 exam question q8-2

% Profit of Annual Total: % of Parent Total % Profit of Grand Total: % of Column Total
https://support.office.com/en-us/article/show-different-calculations-in-pivottable-value-fields-014d2777-baaf-480b-a32b-98431f48bfec

 

QUESTION 9
You create an Excel workbook named SalesResults.xlsx. You create a workbook query that connects to a Microsoft
SQL Server database and loads data to the data model. You create a PivotTable and a PivotChart.
You plan to share SalesResults.xlsx to several users outside of your organization.
You need to ensure that the users can see the PivotTable and the PivotChart when they open the file. The data in the
model must be removed.
What should you do?
A. Run the Document Inspector.
B. Save the workbook as an Excel Binary Workbook (.xlsb).
C. From Query Editor, open the Data Source Settings and delete the credentials.
D. Modify the source of the query.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
You have a workbook query that loads data from C:\Data\Users.xlsx.
You move Users.xlsx to a shared folder on the network.
You need to ensure that you can refresh the data from Users.xlsx.
What should you do?
A. From the Linked Table tab in Power Pivot, modify the Update Mode.
B. From Query Editor, modify the Source step.
C. From the Insert tab in Excel, click My Add-ins, and then manage the add-ins.
D. From the Data tab in Excel click Connections, and then modify the properties of the connection.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
You merge several CVS files by using Query Editor.
You need to remove all the leading whitespaces and all the non-printable characters from a column.
What should you do to achieve each task? To answer, drag the appropriate actions to the correct goals. Each action
may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view
content.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:leads4pass 70-779 exam question q11

Correct Answer:

leads4pass 70-779 exam question q11-1

 

QUESTION 12
You install Microsoft Power BI Publisher for Excel.
You need to use Excel to connect and analyze Power BI data.
To which two types of Power BI data can you connect? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. apps
B. datasets
C. reports
D. dashboard
Correct Answer: BC
Analyze in Excel is very useful for datasets and reports that connect to Analysis Services Tabular or Multidimensional
databases, or from Power BI Desktop files or Excel workbooks with data models that have model measures created
using Data Analysis Expressions (DAX).
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/power-bi/service-analyze-in-excel

 

QUESTION 13
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen. You have a Power Pivot model that contains the following tables.leads4pass 70-779 exam question q13

There is a relationship between Products and ProductCategory.
You need to create a hierarchy in Products that contains ProductCategoryName and ProductName.
Solution: You create a measure that uses the USERELATIONSHIP DAX function.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

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Skills measured

This exam measures your ability to accomplish the technical tasks listed below.

  • Implement SQL in Azure (40–45%)
  • Manage databases and instances (30-35%)
  • Manage Storage (30–35%)

Who should take this exam?

This exam is intended for architects, senior developers, infrastructure specialists, and development leads. Candidates have a working knowledge of the various cloud service models and service model architectures,
data storage options, and data synchronization techniques. Candidates also have a working knowledge of deployment models, upgrading and migrating databases, and applications and services, in addition to integrating Azure applications with external resources.

Microsoft MCSA 70-765 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
You have Microsoft SQL Server on a Microsoft azure virtual machine that has 12 databases.
All database files are in the same Azure Blob storage account.
You need to receive an email notification if I/O operations to the database files exceed 800 MB/s for more than five
minutes.
Solution: You run the Add-AzureRmMetricAlertRule cmdlet and specify the etricName `Network Out\\’ parameter.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
You plan to migrate a Microsoft sql server instance between physical servers.
You must migrate the metadata associated with the database instance.
You need to ensure that the new instance retains the existing jobs and alerts.
Solutions: You restore the model database.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
The model database does not handle alerts and jobs. It is used as the template for all databases created on an instance
of SQL Server.
The msdb database is used by SQL Server Agent for scheduling alerts and jobs and by other features such as SQL
Server Management Studio, Service Broker and Database Mail.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/databases/msdb-database?view=sql-server-2017

 

QUESTION 3
You plan to migrate a Microsoft SQL server instance between physical servers.
You must migrate the metadata associated with the database instance.
You need to ensure that the new instance retains the existing jobs and alerts.
Solutions: You restore the service master key.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
The Service Master Key is the root of the SQL Server encryption hierarchy. It does not handle alerts and jobs.
The msdb database is used by SQL Server Agent for scheduling alerts and jobs and by other features such as SQL
Server Management Studio, Service Broker and Database Mail.
References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/databases/msdb-database?view=sql-server-2017

 

QUESTION 4
You manage a Microsoft SQL Server instance named SQL1 that has 32 gigabytes (GB) of total memory. The instance
supports an app named App1 that only uses a single thread. App1 frequently queries the database using the same
index.
The operating system and App1 combined require 8 GB of memory to function.
You need to ensure that the SQL Server does not limit the performance of App1.
What configuration option should you set?
A. min memory per query to 4 GB
B. index create memory to 16 GB
C. max worker threads to 1
D. max server memory to 16 GB
Correct Answer: B
The index creates memory option controls the maximum amount of memory initially allocated for sort operations when
creating indexes. The default value for this option is 0 (self-configuring). If more memory is later needed for index
creation and the memory is available, the server will use it; thereby, exceeding the setting of this option. If additional
memory is not available, the index creation will continue using the memory already allocated.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/database-engine/configure-windows/configure-the-indexcreate-memory-server-configuration-option


QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You need to run a Transact-SQL script against a Microsoft Azure SQL database daily at 01:00.
Solution: You install the Elastic Database jobs PowerShell package, and then you create an Elastic Database job.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
You administer a Windows 2008 server hosting an instance of Microsoft SQL Server 2014 Standard Edition.
The server hosts a database named Orders.
Users report that a query that filters on OrderDate is taking an exceptionally long time. You discover that an index
named IX_OrderDate on the CustomerOrder table is heavily fragmenteD.
You need to improve the performance of the IX_OrderDate index. The index should remain online during the operation.
Which Transact-SQL command should you use?
A. ALTER INDEX IX_OrderDateON CustomerOrder DISABLE
B. ALTER INDEX IX_OrderDateON CustomerOrder ENABLE
C. ALTER INDEX IX_OrderDateON CustomerOrder REORGANIZE
D. ALTER INDEX IX OrderDateON CustomerOrder REBUILD
Correct Answer: C
Reorganize: This option is more lightweight compared to rebuild. It runs through the leaf level of the index, and as it
goes it fixes physical ordering of pages and also compacts pages to apply any previously set fillfactor settings. This
operation is always online, and if you cancel it then it\\’s able to just stop where it is (it doesn\\’t have a giant operation to
rollback).
References:https://www.brentozar.com/archive/2013/09/index-maintenance-sql-server-rebuild-reorganize/


QUESTION 7
You use Microsoft Azure Resource Manager to deploy two new Microsoft SQL Server instances in an Azure virtual
machine (VM). VM has 28 gigabytes (GB) of memory. The instances are named Instance1 and Instance2, respectively.
The various databases on the instances have the following characteristics:leads4pass 70-765 exam question q7

You run the following Transact-SQL statements:

leads4pass 70-765 exam question q7-1

You need to configure each SQL Server instance to correctly allocate memory. What should you do?
A. On Instance1, run the following Transact-SQL code: On Instance2, run the following Transact-SQL code:
B. A. On Instance1, run the following Transact-SQL code: On Instance2, run the following Transact-SQL code:
C. On Instance1, run the following Transact-SQL code: On Instance2, run the following Transact-SQL code:
D. On Instance1, run the following Transact-SQL code: On Instance2, run the following Transact-SQL code:
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
You have a SQL Server 2016 database named DB1.
You plan to import a large number of records from a SQL Azure database to DB1.
You need to recommend a solution to minimize the amount of space used in the transaction log during the import
operation.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. The bulk-logged recovery model
B. The full recovery model
C. A new partitioned table
D. A new log file
E. A new file group
Correct Answer: A
Compared to the full recovery model, which fully logs all transactions, the bulk-logged recovery model minimally logs
bulk operations, although fully logging other transactions. The bulk-logged recovery model protects against media
failure
and, for bulk operations, provides the best performance and least log space usage.
Note: The bulk-logged recovery model is a special-purpose recovery model that should be used only intermittently to
improve the performance of certain large-scale bulk operations, such as bulk imports of large amounts of data.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms190692(v=sql.105).aspx

 

QUESTION 9
You are deploying a Microsoft SQL Server database that will support a mixed OLTP and OLAP workload. The target
virtual machine has four CPUs.
You need to ensure that reports do not use all available system resources.
What should you do?
A. Enable Auto Close.
B. Increase the value for the Minimum System Memory setting.
C. Set MAXDOP to half the number of CPUs available.
D. Increase the value for the Minimum Memory per query setting.
Correct Answer: C
When an instance of SQL Server runs on a computer that has more than one microprocessor or CPU, it detects the best
degree of parallelism, that is, the number of processors employed to run a single statement, for each parallel plan
execution. You can use the max degree of parallelism option to limit the number of processors to use in parallel plan
execution.

 

QUESTION 10
You have a Microsoft Azure SQL database in the US West region.
You need to create a replica in the US East region.
Which cmdlet should you run first?
A. New-AzureRmAvailabilitySet
B. New-AzureRmLoadBalancer
C. New-AzureRmSqlDatabaseSecondary
D. New-AzureRmSqlElasticPool
E. New-AzureRmVM
F. New-AzureRmSqlServer
G. New-AzureRmSqlDatabaseCopy
H. New-AzureRmSqlServerCommunicationLink
Correct Answer: G
The New-AzureRmSqlDatabaseCopy command creates a copy of a SQL Database that uses the snapshot at the
current time.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/azurerm.sql/new-azurermsqldatabasecopy?view=azurermps-5.1.1

 

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same or similar answer choices. An answer choice may
be correct for more than one question in the series. Each question is independent of the other questions in this series.
Information and details provided in a question apply only to that question.
You have deployed a GS-series virtual machine (VM) in Microsoft Azure. You plan to deploy Microsoft SQL Server.
You need to deploy a 30 megabyte (MB) database that requires 100 IOPS to be guaranteed while minimizing costs.
Which storage option should you use?
A. Premium P10 disk storage
B. Premium P20 disk storage
C. Premium P30 disk storage
D. Standard locally redundant disk storage
E. Standard geo-redundant disk storage
F. Standard zone redundant blob storage
G. Standard locally redundant blob storage
H. Standard geo-redundant blob storage
Correct Answer: A
Premium Storage Disks Limits
When you provision a disk against a Premium Storage account, how much input/output operations per second (IOPS)
and throughput (bandwidth) it can get depends on the size of the disk. Currently, there are three types of Premium
Storage
disks: P10, P20, and P30.
Each one has specific limits for IOPS and throughput as specified in the following table:leads4pass 70-765 exam question q11

References:https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/storage-premium-storage

 

QUESTION 12
You use a Microsoft SQL Server 2014 database that contains two tables named SalesOrderHeader and
SalesOrderDetail. The indexes on the tables are as shown in the exhibit.
(Click the Exhibit button.)leads4pass 70-765 exam question q12

You write the following Transact-SQL query:

leads4pass 70-765 exam question q12-1

You discover that the performance of the query is slow. Analysis of the query plan shows table scans where the
estimated rows do not match the actual rows for SalesOrderHeader by using an unexpected index on
SalesOrderDetail.
You need to improve the performance of the query.
What should you do?
A. Use a FORCESCAN hint in the query.
B. Add a clustered index on SalesOrderId in SalesOrderHeader.
C. Use a FORCESEEK hint in the query.
D. Update statistics on SalesOrderId on both tables.
Correct Answer: D
New statistics would be useful.
The UPDATE STATISTICS command updates query optimization statistics on a table or indexed view. By default, the
query optimizer already updates statistics as necessary to improve the query plan; in some cases you can improve
query
performance by using UPDATE STATISTICS or the stored procedure sp_updatestats to update statistics more
frequently than the default updates.
References:
http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187348.aspx

 

QUESTION 13
You plan to migrate a database To Microsoft Azure SQL Database. The database requires 500 gigabytes (GB) of
storage.
The database must support 50 concurrent logins. You must minimize the cost associated with hosting the database.
You need to create the database.
Which pricing tier should you use?
A. Standard S3 pricing tier
B. Premium P2tier
C. Standard S2 pricing tier
D. Premium P1 tier
Correct Answer: D
For a database size of 500 GB the Premium tier is required. Both P1 and P2 are adequate. P1 is preferred as it is
cheaper. Note:leads4pass 70-765 exam question q13

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