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210-260 dumps

30 Real Cisco CCNA Security 210-260 dumps exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
What is the effect of the given command sequence?
A. It configures IKE Phase 1.
B. It configures a site-to-site VPN tunnel.
C. It configures a crypto policy with a key size of 14400.
D. It configures IPSec Phase 2.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
What hash type does Cisco use to validate the integrity of downloaded images?
A. Sha1
B. Sha2
C. Md5
D. Md1
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
What security feature allows a private IP address to access the Internet by translating it to a public address?
A. NAT
B. hairpinning
C. Trusted Network Detection
D. Certification Authority
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?
A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data
B. to determine whether data is relevant
C. to create a process for accessing data
D. to ensure that only authorized parties can view data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What VPN feature allows Internet traffic and local LAN/WAN traffic to use the same network connection? 210-260 dumps
A. split tunneling
B. hairpinning
C. tunnel mode
D. transparent mode
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
With which NTP server has the router synchronized?
A. 192.168.10.7
B. 108.61.73.243
C. 209.114.111.1
D. 132.163.4.103
E. 204.2.134.164
F. 241.199.164.101
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What are two default Cisco IOS privilege levels? (Choose two.)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 5
D. 7
E. 10
F. 15
Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 8
What is the purpose of a honeypot IPS?
A. To create customized policies
B. To detect unknown attacks
C. To normalize streams
D. To collect information about attacks
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
In which three ways does the RADIUS protocol differ from TACACS? (Choose three.)
A. RADIUS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.
B. RADIUS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.
C. RADIUS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.
D. RADIUS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.
E. RADIUS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.
F. RADIUS supports per-command authorization.
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 10
When a company puts a security policy in place, what is the effect on the company’s business?
A. Minimizing risk
B. Minimizing total cost of ownership
C. Minimizing liability
D. Maximizing compliance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which tasks is the session management path responsible for? 210-260 dumps (Choose three.)
A. Verifying IP checksums
B. Performing route lookup
C. Performing session lookup
D. Allocating NAT translations
E. Checking TCP sequence numbers
F. Checking packets against the access list
Correct Answer: BDF

QUESTION 12
Which statement about extended access lists is true?
A. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the destination
B. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and destination and are most effective when applied to the source
C. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on destination and are most effective when applied to the source
D. Extended access lists perform filtering that is based on source and are most effective when applied to the destination
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
If a supplicant supplies incorrect credentials for all authentication methods configured on the switch, how will the switch respond?
A. The supplicant will fail to advance beyond the webauth method.
B. The switch will cycle through the configured authentication methods indefinitely.
C. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into the unauthorized state.
D. The authentication attempt will time out and the switch will place the port into VLAN 101.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
Refer to the exhibit.
210-260 dumps
Which statement about the device time is true?
A. The time is authoritative, but the NTP process has lost contact with its servers.
B. The time is authoritative because the clock is in sync.
C. The clock is out of sync.
D. NTP is configured incorrectly.
E. The time is not authoritative.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
Which Cisco product can help mitigate web-based attacks within a network?
A. Adaptive Security Appliance
B. Web Security Appliance
C. Email Security Appliance
D. Identity Services Engine
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 16
Which EAP method uses Protected Access Credentials?
A. EAP-FAST
B. EAP-TLS
C. EAP-PEAP
D. EAP-GTC
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
Which feature of the Cisco Email Security Appliance can mitigate the impact of snowshoe spam and sophisticated phishing attacks?
A. contextual analysis
B. holistic understanding of threats
C. graymail management and filtering
D. signature-based IPS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 18
In which stage of an attack does the attacker discover devices on a target network?
A. Reconnaissance
B. Covering tracks
C. Gaining access
D. Maintaining access
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 19
How can the administrator enable permanent client installation in a Cisco AnyConnect VPN firewall configuration?
A. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
B. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed in the global configuration
C. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installed under the group policy or username webvpn mode
D. Issue the command anyconnect keep-installer installer under the group policy or username webvpn mode
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 20
A specific URL has been identified as containing malware. What action can you take to block users from accidentally visiting the URL and becoming infected with malware. 210-260 dumps
A. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to block to the router’s local URL list.
B. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter firewall and add the URLs you want to allow to the router’s local URL list.
C. Enable URL filtering on the perimeter router and add the URLs you want to allow to the firewall’s local URL list.
D. Create a blacklist that contains the URL you want to block and activate the blacklist on the perimeter router.
E. Create a whitelist that contains the URLs you want to allow and activate the whitelist on the perimeter router.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 21
According to Cisco best practices, which three protocols should the default ACL allow on an access port to enable wired BYOD devices to supply valid credentials and connect to the network? (Choose three.)
A. BOOTP
B. TFTP
C. DNS
D. MAB
E. HTTP
F. 802.1x
Correct Answer: ABC

QUESTION 22
In which three cases does the ASA firewall permit inbound HTTP GET requests during normal operations? (Choose three).
A. when matching NAT entries are configured
B. when matching ACL entries are configured
C. when the firewall receives a SYN-ACK packet
D. when the firewall receives a SYN packet
E. when the firewall requires HTTP inspection
F. when the firewall requires strict HTTP inspection
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 23
What is one requirement for locking a wired or wireless device from ISE?
A. The ISE agent must be installed on the device.
B. The device must be connected to the network when the lock command is executed.
C. The user must approve the locking action.
D. The organization must implement an acceptable use policy allowing device locking.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 24
Which syslog severity level is level number 7?
A. Warning
B. Informational
C. Notification
D. Debugging
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 25
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 26
Which statement about personal firewalls is true?
A. They can protect a system by denying probing requests.
B. They are resilient against kernel attacks.
C. They can protect email messages and private documents in a similar way to a VPN.
D. They can protect the network against attacks.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 27
Which two authentication types does OSPF support? 210-260 dumps (Choose two.)
A. plaintext
B. MD5
C. HMAC
D. AES 256
E. SHA-1
F. DES
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 28
How does a device on a network using ISE receive its digital certificate during the new- device registration process?
A. ISE acts as a SCEP proxy to enable the device to receive a certificate from a central CA server.
B. ISE issues a certificate from its internal CA server.
C. ISE issues a pre-defined certificate from a local database.
D. The device requests a new certificate directly from a central CA.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 29
When an administrator initiates a device wipe command from the ISE, what is the immediate effect?
A. It requests the administrator to choose between erasing all device data or only managed corporate data.
B. It requests the administrator to enter the device PIN or password before proceeding with the operation.
C. It notifies the device user and proceeds with the erase operation.
D. It immediately erases all data on the device.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 30
You have implemented a Sourcefire IPS and configured it to block certain addresses utilizing Security Intelligence IP Address Reputation. A user calls and is not able to access a certain IP address. What action can you take to allow the user access to the IP address?
A. Create a whitelist and add the appropriate IP address to allow the traffic.
B. Create a custom blacklist to allow the traffic.
C. Create a user based access control rule to allow the traffic.
D. Create a network based access control rule to allow the traffic.
E. Create a rule to bypass inspection to allow the traffic.
Correct Answer: A

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January 29, 2018 by Cisco

[High Quality Microsoft Dumps] Latest Microsoft MCSE 70-463 Dumps Exam Training Resources And Youtube Demo

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70-463 dumps
QUESTION 1
You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package. The package moves order-related data to a staging table named Order. Every night the staging data is truncated and then all the recent orders from the online store database are inserted into the staging table.
Your package must meet the following requirements:
– If the truncate operation fails, the package execution must stop and report an error.
– If the Data Flow task that moves the data to the staging table fails, the entire refresh operation must be rolled back.
– For auditing purposes, a log entry must be entered in a SQL log table after each execution of the Data Flow task.
The TransactionOption property for the package is set to Required.
You need to design the package to meet the requirements.
How should you design the control flow for the package? (To answer, drag the appropriate setting from the list of settings to the correct location or locations in the answer area.)
70-463 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-463 dumps

QUESTION 2
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data into a data warehouse hosted on SQL Azure.
The package uses a Foreach container to process text files found in a folder. The package must be deployed to a single server by using the Project Deployment model.
Multiple SQL Server Agent jobs call the package. Each job is executed on a different schedule. Each job passes a different folder path to the package.
You need to configure the package to accept the folder path from each job.
Which package configuration should you use?
A. .dtsConfig file
B. Registry Entry
C. Environment Variable
D. Parent Package Variable
E. XML Configuration File
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
You are building a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load data from all files that are automatically copied to a directory each night through an external FTP process.
You need to load data from all copied files to a destination table in SQL Server.
Which three steps should you perform in sequence? 70-463 dumps (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
70-463 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-463 dumps
QUESTION 4
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data from a relational database to a data warehouse.
You are importing data from a relational table named Projects. The table has change data capture enabled on all columns.
You need to process only the most recent values from rows that have been inserted or updated since the previous execution of the package.
Which query should you use as the data source?
70-463 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load data into a data warehouse.
70-463 dumps
You need to establish the correct order for loading each table to maximize parallel processing.
Which order should you use?
A.
1. DimCurrency, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
2. DimOrganization
3. FactFinance
B.
1. DimCurrency, DimOrganization in parallel
2. DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
3. FactFinance
C.
1. DimCurrency, FactFinance in parallel
2. DimOrganization, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
D.
1. FactFinance
2. DimOrganization, DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
3. DimCurrency
E.
1. DimCurrency
2. DimOrganization
3. DimScenario, DimAccount in parallel
4. FactFinance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that uploads a file to a table named Orders in a SQL Azure database.
The company’s auditing policies have the following requirements:
– An entry must be written to a dedicated SQL Server log table named OrderLog.
– The entry must be written as soon as the file upload task completes.
You need to meet the company’s policy requirements.
Which event handler should you use?
A. OnPostExecute
B. OnWarning
C. OnExecStatusChanged
D. OnVariableValueChanged
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
You are editing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that contains three Execute SQL tasks and no other tasks. The package and all three Execute SQL tasks have their TransactionOption property set to Supported.
You need to ensure that if any of the Execute SQL tasks fail, all three tasks will roll back their changes.
What should you do?
A. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Sequence container.
B. Move the three Execute SQL tasks into a Foreach Loop container.
C. Change the TransactionOption property of all three Execute SQL tasks to Required.
D. Change the TransactionOption property of the package to Required.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.
The package uses custom functionality that accesses a SQL Server database. The custom functionality must be implemented by using Language Integrated Query (LINQ).
You need to ensure that the LINQ code can be debugged at design time.
What should you select from the SSIS Toolbox? (To answer, drag the appropriate item to the correct location in the answer area.)
70-463 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-463 dumps
QUESTION 9
You are designing an extract, transform, load (ETL) process with SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS). Two packages, Package A and Package B, will be designed. 70-463 dumps Package A will execute Package B.
Both packages must reference a file path corresponding to an input folder where files will be located for further processing.
You need to design a solution so that the file path can be easily configured with the least administrative and development effort.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
70-463 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-463 dumps
QUESTION 10
You are creating a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that implements a Type 3 Slowly Changing Dimension (SCD).
You need to add a task or component to the package that allows you to implement the SCD logic.
What should you use?
A. a Script component
B. an SCD component
C. an Aggregate component
D. a Merge component
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
You develop a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project by using the Project Deployment model.
The project contains many packages. It is deployed on a server named Development!. The project will be deployed to several servers that run SQL Server 2012.
The project accepts one required parameter. The data type of the parameter is a string.
A SQL Agent job is created that will call the master.dtsx package in the project. A job step is created for the SSIS package.
The job must pass the value of an SSIS Environment Variable to the project parameter.
The value of the Environment Variable must be configured differently on each server that runs SQL Server. The value of the Environment Variable must provide the server name to the project parameter.
You need to configure SSIS on the Development1 server to pass the Environment Variable to the package.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence by using SQL Server Management Studio? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
70-463 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-463 dumps
QUESTION 12
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports data into a data warehouse. You add an Execute SQL task to the control flow.
The task must execute a simple INSERT statement. The task has the following requirements:
– The INSERT statement must use the value of a string package variable. The variable name is StringVar.
– The Execute SQL task must use an OLE DB Connection Manager.
In the Parameter Mapping tab of the Execute SQL task, StringVar has been added as the only parameter.
You must configure the SQLStatement property of the Execute SQL task.
Which SQL statement should you use?
A. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES ($StringVar)
B. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (0)
C. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (@0)
D. INSERT INTO dbo.Table (variablevalue) VALUES (?)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
You are building a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load product data sourced from a SQL Azure database to a data warehouse. Before the product data is loaded, you create a batch record by using an Execute SQL task named Create Batch. 70-463 dumps
After successfully loading the product data, you use another Execute SQL task named Set Batch Success to mark the batch as successful.
70-463 dumps
You need to create and execute an Execute SQL task to mark the batch as failed if either the Create Batch or Load Products task fails.
Which three steps should you perform in sequence? (To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.)
70-463 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-463 dumps
QUESTION 14
You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to insert new data into a data mart. The package uses a Lookup transformation to find matches between the source and destination.
The data flow has the following requirements:
– New rows must be inserted.
– Lookup failures must be written to a flat file.
In the Lookup transformation, the setting for rows with no matching entries is set to Redirect rows to no match output. You need to configure the package to direct data into the correct destinations.
How should you design the data flow outputs? (To answer, drag the appropriate transformation from the list of answer options to the correct location in the answer area.)
70-463 dumps
Correct Answer:
70-463 dumps
QUESTION 15
You are installing the Data Quality Client on user desktops.
You need to ensure that the prerequisite software components are installed.
Which components must be present to meet this goal? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
A. SQL Server Management Studio
B. Internet Explorer 6.0 SP1 or later
C. Microsoft Silverlight 5
D. .NET Framework 3.5 SP1
E. .NET Framework 4.0
F. Microsoft Silverlight 4
G. SQL Server Data Tools
Correct Answer: B,E

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January 22, 2018 by Microsoft

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QUESTION 1
A technician needs to run a cable for a new computer and the requirement is CAT6. Which of the following wiring connectors should the technician use when terminating the cable?
A. BNC
B. RJ-12
C. RJ-45
D. ST
E. F-connector
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A technician wants to install a secondary IDE drive which will be configured for additional user storage on the same ID channel of the drive with the operating system. Which of the following jumper configurations should the technician use for the additional drive, if the drive with the operating system is set to MA?
A. Place a jumper on both the MA and CS jumper block of the secondary drive.
B. Place a jumper on the MA jumper block of the secondary drive.
C. Place a jumper on both the SL and CS jumper block of the secondary drive.
D. Place a jumper on the SL jumper block of the secondary drive.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
A technician is installing Hyper-V and is getting an error that the software is not able to be installed. Which of the following processor characteristics should be checked?
A. Cache size
B. Virtualization support
C. Number of cores
D. Hyper threading
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following interfaces are used to simultaneously transfer video and audio at high rates?
A. HDMI
B. DVI-D
C. S-Video
D. DVI-I
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
A client, Ann, is having issues with a PC shutting down. There are no error messages displayed before the system powers off. 220-901 dumps Ann reports that this started after she installed and began using CAD software. The hard drive, video card, and RAM all meet the software requirements and have passed diagnostics. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue?
A. The video card has 3D acceleration disabled.
B. The hard drive is IDE instead of SATA.
C. The hard drive needs to be repartitioned.
D. The PSU is underpowered for the system.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following wireless technologies is LEAST likely to be intercepted by a third party?
A. NFC
B. Bluetooth
C. WiFi
D. Cellular
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A user reports that the mouse is not working properly. The technician notices on the user\’s workstation that the mouse cursor spins for several minutes before the technician can use the mouse. Which of the following is the cause of the issue?
A. Failed Operating System
B. Faulty mouse
C. Faulty CPU
D. Not enough memory
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
220-901 dumps
Select and Place:
220-901 dumps
Correct Answer:
220-901 dumps
QUESTION 9
A user has received an error message when connecting to the wireless network. The error indicates the IP address being used by the user\’s system is already in use. A DHCP server is used on the network. After having the user disconnect from the wireless network, the technician is still able to ping the user\’s IP address. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause?
A. The user has a statically assigned IP address in the DHCP server scope.
B. The system\’s local firewall is blocking SYN/ACK traffic from the DHCP server.
C. The DHCP server\’s scope has been exhausted and no additional IP addresses are available.
D. The user is also connected to the wired network with a LAN cable.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
A technician is building a workstation that will only be used to connect remotely to a server. Which of the following types of PC configurations is BEST suited for this task? 220-901 dumps
A. Thin client
B. Home server PC
C. CAD workstation
D. AV workstation
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
The OSD of a monitor indicates the proper video source is selected, but no image is displayed. Which of the following issues are the MOST likely reasons? {Select TWO).
A. The source cable is disconnected
B. The monitor\’s brightness is set too low
C. The backlighting of the monitor is faulty
D. The monitor\’s contrast is set too high
E. No device is sending source video
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 12
Which of the following would typically require the use of a punchdown tool to connect a cable to the network switch?
A. Router
B. Repeater
C. Patch panel
D. PoE injector
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 13
Which of the following adapters converts an analog signal to a digital signal?
A. S-Video to RCA
B. HDMI to VGA
C. VGA to DVI-D
D. DVI-D to HDMI
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
Which of the following is an advantage of UDP over TCP?
A. It is connection based.
B. It uses flow control.
C. It transfers packets faster.
D. It uses connection handshakes.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
The technician is troubleshooting a connection issue between the switch and the wall jack. The user is plugged into the jack; however, there is no connection. The technician goes into the switch room to see if the cable is plugged into the switch, but none of the cables are labeled. Which of the following tools would the technician MOST likely use to find this cable?
A. WiFi analyzer
B. Loopback plug
C. Multimeter
D. Tone generator
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
A technician is tasked with selecting components to build a computer that will be used for computer-aided drafting and computer aided modeling. 220-901 dumps Which of the following components are the BEST choices? {Select TWO).
A. Triple channel memory
B. MIDI sound card
C. Socket 1156 motherboard
D. Onboard graphics
E. Socket 1366 CPU
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 17
Which of the following expansion slots uses a serial connection?
A. PCI
B. PCI-X
C. PCIe
D. AGP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which of the following expansion slots is MOST commonly used for high-end video cards?
A. PCI
B. PCIe
C. CNR
D. AGP
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 19
A user, Ann, is preparing to travel abroad and wants to ensure that her laptop will work properly. Which of the following components of the laptop should be verified FIRST to ensure power compatibility before traveling?
A. Wall adapter
B. Battery
C. Power supply
D. Digitizer
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Ann, a user, boots her laptop and notices the screen flashes then turns black. It was working during her presentation yesterday. Which of the following troubleshooting steps should be completed?
A. Use a multimeter to test voltage.
B. Replace the laptop with a new one.
C. Replace the battery.
D. Connect an external display device.
Correct Answer: D

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January 8, 2018 by CompTIA

Citrix Systems Rating Reaffirmed And Ratings Coverage

Investor sentiment rose to 0.89 in 2Q17. From 0.88 in the first quarter of 2017 to 0.01. This is positive as 42 investors sold shares of Citrix Systems while 184 were underweight. 51 funds open positions, 150 to raise funds. It was reported that 122.38 million shares in the first quarter of 2017 decreased by 132.1 million shares, representing a decrease of 0.62%.

In a report to customers this morning, RBC Capital reiterated the “hold” rating on shares of Citrix Systems (NASDAQ: CTXS). The company’s latest price may slide -2.96%.

Investor sentiment rose to 0.89 in 2Q17. From 0.88 in the first quarter of 2017 to 0.01. This is positive as 42 investors sold shares of Citrix Systems while 184 were underweight. 51 funds open positions, 150 to raise funds. It was reported that 122.38 million shares in the first quarter of 2017 decreased by 132.1 million shares, representing a decrease of 0.62%.

Sun Life Finance said it owns 0.01% of its portfolio at Citrix Systems, Inc. (NASDAQ: CTXS). The Nj State Employees Deferred Compensation Scheme owns 20,000 shares. Pax Ww Mngmt said it has 40,000 shares, representing 0.18% of its total share. HSBC Limited accumulative 956,204 shares. Macquarie Co., Ltd. reported 71,900 shares. Chevy Chase Trust holds a 0.05% stake in Citrix Systems, Inc (NASDAQ: CTXS) for a total of 130,289 shares. Zweig owns 3,300 shares, representing 0.02% of its portfolio.
Citrix
Manufacturer Life The Company owned 179,564 subsidiaries with a proportion of 0.02% of the shares sold. In addition, Greenwood Assocs Limited Com holds a 0.06% stake in the shares of Citrix Systems, Inc. (NASDAQ: CTXS). Fiera Capital Corp reported a 0% stake. Nuveen Asset Lc holds 0.16% of its portfolio at Citrix Systems (NASDAQ: CTXS) with 322,671 shares. Shares in Citigroup Systems Inc. (Nasdaq: CTXS) rose 0.83%, the U.S. giant oil giant Investment Adviser said. Redwood Investments Llc holds 15 shares or a 0% investment portfolio. Victory Cap Mgmt owns 21,466 shares, representing 0% of its portfolio. Shelton Cap Mngmt owns 12,060 shares, representing 0.07% of its portfolio.

Of the 23 analysts involved in Citrix Systems Inc. (Nasdaq: CTXS), 13 were rated, 3 are sold and 7 are held. So 57% are positive. Citrix Systems Inc. has a minimum target of $ 104 and a minimum of $ 56. The average target of $ 85.68 is -2.18% below the current $ 87.59 share price. According to SRatingsIntel, Citrix Systems Inc. has a total of 73 analysis reports since July 29, 2015. William Blair maintained his rating on the Market Perform on Thursday, August 20. On Thursday April 21, Stifel Nicolaus maintains a CTXS stock report “Buy” rating.

The company was “Outperform” by Robert W. Baird on Thursday, April 21. As of Thursday, June 1, Jefferies maintains a company rating. BTIG Research released a “Neutral” rating on Thursday, September 10. Barclays Capital gains “overweight” rating on Thursday, August 3. UBS gets “Neutral” rating on Thursday, April 21. Shares of Citrix Systems Inc. (NASDAQ: CTXS) have been “executed” at Oppenheimer on Wednesday, Nov. 18. The stock was “bought” by M Partners on Thursday, April 21. Mizuho maintains Citrix Systems Inc. (Nasdaq: CTXS) on Wednesday, August 2. Mizuho has “Buy” rating and $ 9,400 target.
Citrix
The stock rose 0.48% or 0.42 U.S. dollars to reach 87.59 U.S. dollars last trading day. Turnover of about 116 million shares. Citrix Systems, Inc. (Nasdaq: CTXS) has risen 26.42% since December 10, 2016, and is on the uptrend. The S & P 500 outperformed the broader market by 9.72%.

Citrix Systems provides an integrated platform for secure applications and data delivery, as well as networking capabilities as a global cloud service. The company’s market capitalization reached 132 billion US dollars. The company provides workspace services, including XenDesktop, a cloud-enabled desktop virtualization solution that gives customers the flexibility to deliver desktops and applications as a service for cloud and local data centers; and XenApp, which enables Windows applications as cloud services Deliver to Android and iOS mobile devices, Macs, PCs and thin clients. It has a P / E of 29.67. The company’s workspace services also include the XenMobile Enterprise Mobility Management Solution; and the Citrix Workspace Suite for applications, desktops, branch networks and WANs, enterprise mobility management and data solutions.

Reference: https://weeklyhub.com/analysts-at-rbc-capital-reconfirmed-their-past-hold-rating-on-shares-citrix-systems-nasdaqctxs-set-a-85-0-tp/

December 11, 2017 by Citrix news

[High Quality Microsoft Dumps] Helpful Microsoft IT Infrastructure 98-367 Dumps Exam Study Guides And Materials Update

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98-367 dumps
QUESTION 1
To prevent users from copying data to removable media, you should:
A. Lock the computer cases
B. Apply a group policy
C. Disable copy and paste
D. Store media in a locked room
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
The purpose of a digital certificate is to verify that a:
A. Public key belongs to a sender.
B. Computer is virus-free.
C. Private key belongs to a sender.
D. Digital document is complete.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
A user who receives a large number of emails selling prescription medicine is probably receiving pharming mail.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Malware
B. Spoofed mail
C. Spam
D. No change is needed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
Account lockout policies are used to prevent which type of security attack? 98-367 dumps
A. Brute force attacks
B. Users sharing passwords
C. Social engineering
D. Passwords being reused immediately
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You need to limit the programs that can run on client computers to a specific list.
Which technology should you implement?
A. Windows Security Center
B. Security Accounts Manager
C. System Configuration Utility
D. AppLocker group policies
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Keeping a server updated:
A. Maximizes network efficiency
B. Fixes security holes
C. Speeds up folder access
D. Synchronizes the server
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
You are trying to connect to an FTP server on the Internet from a computer in a school lab. You cannot get a connection. You try on another computer with the same results. The computers in the lab are able to browse the Internet.
You are able to connect to this FTP server from home.
What could be blocking the connection to the server?
A. A layer-2 switch
B. A wireless access point
C. A firewall
D. A layer-2 hub
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
The WPA2 PreShared Key (PSK) is created by using a passphrase (password) and salting it with the WPS PIN.
Select the correct answer if the underlined text does not make the statement correct. Select “No change is needed” if the underlined text makes the statement correct.
A. Service Set Identifier (SSID)
B. Admin password
C. WEP key
D. No change is needed
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
You need to install a domain controller in a branch office. You also need to secure the information on the domain controller. You will be unable to physically secure the server. 98-367 dumps
Which should you implement?
A. Read-Only Domain Controller
B. Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP)
C. Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP)
D. Server Core Domain Controller
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
Where should you lock up the backup tapes for your servers?
A. The server room
B. A filing cabinet
C. The tape library
D. An offsite fire safe
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
Basic security questions used to reset a password are susceptible to:
A. Hashing
B. Social engineering
C. Network sniffing
D. Trojan horses
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which three elements does HTTPS encrypt? (Choose three.)
A. Browser cookies
B. Server IP address
C. Port numbers
D. Website URL
E. Login information
Correct Answer: ADE

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December 6, 2017 by Microsoft

[High Quality Microsoft Dumps] Microsoft Project 74-344 Dumps Exam Training Resources Free Update

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: Microsoft Project
Exam Name: Managing Programs and Projects with Project Server 2013
Exam Code: 74-344
Total Questions: 97 Q&As
74-344 dumps
QUESTION 1
Your organization is performing a Portfolio Analysis in Project Server 2013. You want to create a consolidated Portfolio Analysis optimization based on Cost and Resource data, which will be part of the project information in Project Server 2013. You plan to provide different simulations to your organization by using those parameters and returning the best prioritization. This organization has two different unit directors, who have the final decision on the consolidated Portfolio Analysis results. You need to provide the ability for your unit directors to modify the final portfolio selection. Which element should you use?
A. Resource Requirements
B. Project/Proposal Priority
C. Field Cost Constraint
D. Project Original Start
E. Field Force In/Out
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
You are a project manager in an organization that uses Project Server 2013. All project managers have permission to edit all projects. You edit a project in Project Web App (PWA), make changes, publish the project, and close your browser. A project manager calls you to report they are unable to open your project for edit in PWA. You need to resolve this issue. What should you do?
A. Advise the project manager to open the project in Project Professional 2013.
B. Open Project Professional 2013 and use the Clean Up Cache button.
C. Open the Project Center in PWA and use the Check in My Projects button.
D. Open the Project Center in PWA and use the Project Permissions button.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 3
Your organization is a multinational corporation that uses Project Online to plan and control the projects in different business units. Each business unit has its own portfolio of projects but can participate in strategic projects. The Research and Development (R&D) department has been struggling to gather and materialize the new ideas. The Project Management Office (PMO) has the necessary templates and Enterprise Project Types (EPTs) to start a formal process for any new product and to adhere to the general guidelines. 74-344 dumps However, the R&D group does not want to register all of their ideas since many are related to improvements and few of them could be materialized into projects. You need to generate a solution that allows R&D to gather their ideas and facilitate the materialization into Enterprise Projects. What should you do?
A. Create a new EPT for the SharePoint Task List and name it R&D New Idea.
B. Within the same site collection of Project Web App (PWA), create a Custom SharePoint Item List for ideation and requests with custom fields that easily match with Project custom fields when using the Add SharePoint Sites command in Project Center.
C. Create a new EPT for Enterprise Projects and name it R&D New Idea.
D. Within the same site collection of Project Web App (PWA), create a custom list for ideation and match list columns with Project custom fields when using the Create Projects command in the SharePoint Item List.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
Your organization uses Project Online for project portfolio selection. The business drivers and priorities are set, as are the main constraints to identify the efficient frontier. The company has been collecting business cases for new proposals in which many projects may solve the same business need. For example, the selection for a Customer Relationship Management system has six different proposals, whereas only one is necessary to fulfill the business need. You need to guarantee that the analysis will produce the most viable proposal in terms of cost and resources and that no repetitive efforts exist in the portfolio selection. What should you do?
A. Create a mutual exclusion dependency among all these projects.
B. Create a mutual inclusion dependency among all these projects.
C. Exclude these projects from the Portfolio Analysis to prevent a deviation from the main goal.
D. Exclude the related projects from the portfolio after the cost analysis with the Force in/out option.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
You are a program manager for an organization that uses Project Server 2013. You are responsible for implementing a data warehouse that compiles relational data from many business areas. Your project managers need to be able to manage the implementation for a business area as separate projects, while still recognizing the dependencies at a program level. You need to maintain ownership and authority of key program dates at the program level. What should you do?
A. Create one project file for all project managers that includes the program-level tasks and each sub-project’s tasks. Require each area project manager to share the file, and add their dependencies within their own tasks.
B. Create and publish a master project file with general durations for each business area sub-project, and have the area project manager reconcile the dates in their own project manually each week.
C. Have the project managers create, save, and publish sub-projects for each area. Then insert them into a program-level project, define dependencies, and save and publish the program-level project to the server.
D. Create a master project and insert your projects, but never publish the file on the server.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
You are a program manager for a company that uses Project Server 2013 and Project Professional 2013. You manage the implementation of a data warehouse. You have set up your program master project with subprojects for each implementation area. You need to make edits to the dependencies between projects. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. View the subproject in Project Web App (PWA) and choose Edit. Then add your dependencies in the predecessor’s/successor’s column.
B. Open the program-level project from Project Web App (PWA) by using Project Professional 2013. Highlight the tasks you wish to link for a dependency with the control key. Then click the link button on the tool bar.
C. Open the program-level project and the subproject from the Project Web App (PWA) and save them to your local machine. Then add your predecessor’s/successor’s column in either file.
D. Open each of the required subprojects from the Project Web App (PWA) by using Project Professional 2013 and create the link in the predecessor’s/successor’s column to the other projects using the <>\Project Name\Task ID.
E. View the program-level project in Project Web App (PWA) and choose Edit. Then add your dependencies in the predecessor’s/ successor’s column using the <>\Project Name\Task ID.
Correct Answer: B,D

QUESTION 7
Your work in a multinational corporation which uses Project Server 2013 to plan and control projects in different business units. Each business unit has its own portfolio of projects but can participate in strategic projects. The Project Management Office (PMO) has configured Enterprise Project Types (EPTs) to create new products, launch marketing campaigns, and deploy new lines of business tools to comply with the governance processes. One of your roles is to identify new products. A local team in Singapore produces an effective idea for a new product. 74-344 dumps You need to create a business case for the next portfolio analysis. You need to gather general information about the new product by efficiently collaborating with the local team. What should you do?
A. Start a Project with the New Product EPT, which will trigger a workflow and allow you to display and collect descriptive data and exchange information in the Project site.
B. Exchange information by sharing documents through SkyDrive Pro 2013.
C. Create a Team Site for the Singapore business unit for gathering information and assigning tasks. Save the Team Site as a template for use within the New Product EPT.
D. Start a new enterprise project with the Microsoft SharePoint task list EPT, and grant immediate access to the team so they can share information, assign tasks, and collaborate.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Your organization has implemented Project Server 2013 to plan and control enterprise projects. Your organization plans to perform a Portfolio Analysis for the first time on the Selection of Projects to be done the next year. Business drivers, as well as a pair wise comparison of those business drivers to set the business priorities, is the chosen method. Your organization has provided you with a total of 35 business drivers, 30 of which are related in some way. You need to return with a valid set of drivers and prioritization to perform the analysis. What should you do?
A. Perform a pairwise analysis on the drivers to identify relative priorities with key stakeholders.
B. Specify a priority value for each driver in order to complete the pairwise analysis.
C. Reduce the number of drivers to fewer than 12 and perform the prioritization with the key stakeholders.
D. Assign priorities to each driver and normalize to 100 percent.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
You are a manager for a project your team has been working on for many weeks. Your project is created as a Microsoft SharePoint task list project and is available in Project Center. You have established the work breakdown structure (WBS), predecessors, assignments, and all of the functionalities you can get from a SharePoint task list.
However, the project has grown in detail, and managing 200 activities has become difficult in Project Web App (PWA). You need to ensure resources continue to report their progress in the same way. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Activate the Enterprise Project Features for the SharePoint site task list and edit the tasks in PWA project details.
B. Edit the project in Project Professional 2013 from the Project Center by clicking the icon of the SharePoint task list project in the Indicators column.
C. Activate the Enterprise Project Features for the SharePoint site task list and edit the tasks in Project Professional 2013.
D. Edit the project in Project Professional 2013 by synching the SharePoint task list so you can take advantage of the extended features.
Correct Answer: B, D

QUESTION 10
A company deploys Project Server 2013 to perform a Portfolio Analysis, which they will use to select the projects they will execute in the next fiscal period. The company establishes the criteria to evaluate the portfolio components, and all business cases must be evaluated under these parameters. When configuring Project Server 2013, the Project Management Office (PMO) finds that the established criteria contain both qualitative and quantitative elements, such as corporate reputation and internal rate of return (IRR). You need to provide a system calculated approach to rank your strategic initiatives against each other. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Create a Business Driver library that captures the criteria in quantifiable impact statements that are specific and measurable.
B. Perform a pairwise analysis on the driver set to identify relative priorities.
C. Perform a prioritization by assigning a relative weight to each value criterion and establish the priorities.
D. Create a custom field for each criterion and ensure each value is captured for each project by making the project fields as required.
Correct Answer: A, B

QUESTION 11
The IT department uses Project Online to analyze the projects they will execute the next year. Four projects with their respective priority and costs are shown in the exhibit. 74-344 dumps (Click the Exhibit button.)
74-344 dumps
The team needs to get the most value from their portfolio, but some last minute restrictions could change their selection. A mutually inclusive dependency is added between the two CRM projects. A mutually inclusive dependency is also added between the two EPM projects. You need to assist the team in achieving the most value in their portfolio, given the constraints shown in the exhibit. You enforce the dependencies and recalculate the analysis. Which two statements become true? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. The Portfolio Strategic Value will be of 56%.
B. The sum of Cost Estimate of Selected Projects will be 550k.
C. The sum of Cost Estimate of Selected Projects will be 900k.
D. The Portfolio Strategic Value will be of 44%.
Correct Answer: B, D

QUESTION 12
An organization has performed a portfolio analysis in Project Server 2013 by defining a list of drivers and establishing the prioritization for next year’s portfolio. You are finalizing the second quarter for the next year, which is when changes to the strategy will take place. For transparency reasons, the organization intends to keep historic analysis for a certain number of years. You need to reevaluate your portfolio for the rest of the year, considering new projects and current executing projects. Which two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose two.)
A. Create new business drivers.
B. Update or inactivate business drivers.
C. Create new driver prioritizations for the current period.
D. Update or delete current driver prioritizations.
Correct Answer: A, C

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November 29, 2017 by Microsoft

[High Quality Cisco Dumps] Latest Cisco 300-206 Dumps Exam Practice Files And Youtube Update Free Shared

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNP Security
Exam Name: Implementing Cisco Edge Network Security Solutions
Exam Code: 300-206
Total Questions: 254 Q&As
300-206 dumps
QUESTION 1
A network engineer is asked to configure NetFlow to sample one of every 100 packets on a router’s fa0/0 interface. Which configuration enables sampling, assuming that NetFlow is already configured and running on the router’s fa0/0 interface?
A. flow-sampler-map flow1mode random one-out-of 100 interface fas0/0 flow-sampler flow1
B. flow monitor flow1mode random one-out-of 100 interface fas0/0 ip flow monitor flow1
C. flow-sampler-map flow1one-out-of 100 interface fas0/0 flow-sampler flow1
D. ip flow-export source fas0/0 one-out-of 100
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which two statements about Cisco IOS Firewall are true? (Choose two.)
A. It provides stateful packet inspection.
B. It provides faster processing of packets than Cisco ASA devices provide.
C. It provides protocol-conformance checks against traffic.
D. It eliminates the need to secure routers and switches throughout the network.
E. It eliminates the need to secure host machines throughout the network.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 3
Which three configurations are needed to enable SNMPv3 support on the Cisco ASA? 300-206 dumps (Choose three.)
A. SNMPv3 Local EngineID
B. SNMPv3 Remote EngineID
C. SNMP Users
D. SNMP Groups
E. SNMP Community Strings
F. SNMP Hosts
Correct Answer: CDF

QUESTION 4
A Cisco ASA is configured for TLS proxy. When should the security appliance force remote IP phones connecting to the phone proxy through the internet to be in secured mode?
A. When the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is in non-secure mode
B. When the Cisco Unified Communications Manager cluster is in secure mode only
C. When the Cisco Unified Communications Manager is not part of a cluster
D. When the Cisco ASA is configured for IPSec VPN
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What is the default behavior of an access list on the Cisco ASA security appliance?
A. It will permit or deny traffic based on the access-list criteria.
B. It will permit or deny all traffic on a specified interface.
C. An access group must be configured before the access list will take effect for traffic control.
D. It will allow all traffic.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What are three of the RBAC views within Cisco IOS Software? (Choose three.)
A. Admin
B. CLI
C. Root
D. Super Admin
E. Guest
F. Super
Correct Answer: BCF

QUESTION 7
What is the default behavior of NAT control on Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3?
A. NAT control has been deprecated on Cisco ASA Software Version 8.3.
B. It will prevent traffic from traversing from one enclave to the next without proper access configuration.
C. It will allow traffic to traverse from one enclave to the next without proper access configuration.
D. It will deny all traffic.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Which of the following would need to be created to configure an application-layer inspection of SMTP traffic operating on port 2525? 300-206 dumps
A. A class-map that matches port 2525 and applying an inspect ESMTP policy-map for that class in the global inspection policy
B. A policy-map that matches port 2525 and applying an inspect ESMTP class-map for that policy
C. An access-list that matches on TCP port 2525 traffic and applying it on an interface with the inspect option
D. A class-map that matches port 2525 and applying it on an access-list using the inspect option
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
For which purpose is the Cisco ASA CLI command aaa authentication match used?
A. Enable authentication for SSH and Telnet connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
B. Enable authentication for console connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
C. Enable authentication for connections through the Cisco ASA appliance.
D. Enable authentication for IPsec VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
E. Enable authentication for SSL VPN connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
F. Enable authentication for Cisco ASDM connections to the Cisco ASA appliance.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
For which management session types does ASDM allow a maximum simultaneous connection limit to be set?
A. ASDM, Telnet, SSH
B. ASDM, Telnet, SSH, console
C. ASDM, Telnet, SSH, VTY
D. ASDM, Telnet, SSH, other
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two options are purposes of the packet-tracer command? (Choose two.)
A. to filter and monitor ingress traffic to a switch
B. to configure an interface-specific packet trace
C. to simulate network traffic through a data path
D. to debug packet drops in a production network
E. to automatically correct an ACL entry in an ASA
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
You are the administrator of a multicontext transparent-mode Cisco ASA that uses a shared interface that belongs to more than one context. Because the same interface will be used within all three contexts, which statement describes how you will ensure that return traffic will reach the correct context?
A. Interfaces may not be shared between contexts in routed mode.
B. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the no mac-address auto command.
C. Configure a unique MAC address per context with the mac-address auto command.
D. Use static routes on the Cisco ASA to ensure that traffic reaches the correct context.
Correct Answer: C

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November 21, 2017 by Cisco

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Cyber Ops
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cybersecurity Fundamentals
Exam Code: 210-250
Total Questions: 80 Q&As
210-250 dumps
QUESTION 1
What is the impact of using a Call Type node in a routing script for the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system?
A. The call type is changed and maintains the old data in the original call type.
B. The call is reset to the new call type, like a new call with all counters reset to zero.
C. There is no impact, the call type is only used for the initial script selection process.
D. The call is reclassified and the system picks a new routing script based on the call type.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
How is accurate service-level information obtained in a Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Parent/Child model with calls queued at the parent?
A. in the parent Cisco Unified ICM system, using Agent Level Detail data
B. in the parent Cisco Unified ICM system, using skill group data
C. in the child Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, using call type data
D. in the child Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system, using services data
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Under which circumstances can the visible and private networks be converged in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system?
A. when QoS is enabled on both networks
B. in cases in which there is gigabit bandwidth between sites
C. under no circumstances
D. when the Cisco Catalyst switch has dual power supplies
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
When a call is processed using the Ring No Answer dialed number in Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise, what does the caller experience? 210-250 dumps
A. The caller hears ringing at the agent; this ringing continues until the caller drops the call.
B. The caller hears queue music and is sent to the default queue for that call type.
C. The caller hears ringing at the agent and then follows the new script for Ring No Answer.
D. The caller is automatically transferred to the next agent without any indication.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
Which one of the following types of traffic from the PG to the central controller is considered high priority in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution?
A. configuration requests
B. skill group data
C. routing and DMP control traffic
D. Real-Time Monitoring
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
How does Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise provide security to the system?
A. Microsoft Windows Active Directory is used to control access to the system.
B. Microsoft SQL Server accounts and logins for all users are used to control access to the system.
C. Cisco Synchronization Service is used to control access to the system.
D. Administrator accounts for the system are encrypted and kept in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise database to control access to the system.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
What role does Cisco Unified Communications Manager play in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution?
A. automatic call distribution
B. integrated call distribution
C. interactive voice response system
D. call switching to agent and Cisco Unified IP IVR
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
When the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system transfers a call to the Cisco Unified IP IVR using a “Translation Route to VRU” node, which label is sent to the routing client?
A. Cisco Unified IP IVR CTI route point
B. Cisco Unified IP IVR CTI port
C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager MTP
D. Cisco Unified Communications Manager CTI route point
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 9
When is a call type assigned to a call in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise system?
A. when the call is routed to an agent
B. when the call is first post-routed from Cisco Unified Communications Manager
C. when the call terminates and data is written to the Cisco TCD table
D. when a call-routing script hits the first Queue to Skill Group node
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
What role does the Cisco Unified ICM play in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution? 210-250 dumps
A. plays music on hold and in queue for callers
B. terminates media streams for agents and callers
C. provides routing and queuing instructions for contacts
D. records and stores voice calls for quality purposes
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
What is the recommended way to configure redundant Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscribers for Cisco IP phone registration in a single cluster for the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise solution?
A. add a redundant device pool to the Cisco Unified CallManager Group configuration
B. add a second TFTP server to the cluster
C. add an additional Cisco Unified Communications Manager subscriber to the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Group defined in Device pool of the Cisco IP Phone
D. use an SRST reference in the device pool
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
When Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise is deployed with Cisco Unified IP IVR as the queue point, where does Ring No Answer treatment get defined?
A. In the Cisco Unified IP IVR application editor script
B. In the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise Agent desk settings in ConfigManager
C. In the re-query node in the Cisco Unified Contact Center Enterprise routing script
D. In the Cisco Unified Communications Manager Call Forward No Answer setting
Correct Answer: B

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November 15, 2017 by Cisco

[High Quality Cisco Dumps] New Cisco 210-451 Dumps PDF Training Resources And VCE Youtube Demo Update

New Cisco CCNA Cloud 210-451 dumps pdf training resources and dumps vce youtube update free demo. Get the best Cisco CCNA Cloud 210-451 dumps exam questions and answers free try from leads4pass. “Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals” is the name of Cisco CCNA Cloud https://www.leads4pass.com/210-451.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Offer the latest Cisco CCNA Cloud 210-451 dumps exam practice materials and study guides, pass Cisco 210-451 exam test easily.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: CCNA Cloud
Exam Name: Understanding Cisco Cloud Fundamentals
Exam Code: 210-451
Total Questions: 60 Q&As
210-451 dumps
QUESTION 1
Which option is one essential characteristic of Cloud computing?
A. It must use virtualization.
B. It must provide load balancing services.
C. It must provide on-demand self service.
D. It must run on open source software.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Which Cloud service model is appropriate for a physical data center move to the Cloud?
A. Infrastructure as a Service
B. Platform as a Service
C. Compute as a Service
D. Software as a Service
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
What is an invalid Cloud deployment model?
A. distributed
B. private
C. community
D. hybrid
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Which two options are benefits of the Cisco InterCloud Solution? 210-451 dumps (Choose two.)
A. enforces standardization on a single hypervisor product
B. provides self service for hybrid resources
C. management of heterogeneous SAN solutions
D. secure connectivity between public and private Clouds
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 5
Which option contains server hardware identifiers, firmware, state, configuration, and connectivity characteristics?
A. pools
B. policies
C. service profiles
D. resource groups
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which two technologies support running Linux and Windows virtual machines? (Choose two.)
A. KVM
B. LXD
C. Docker
D. Microsoft Hyper-V
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
Which of the following best describes the order of operations of FCoE Initialization Protocol?
A. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery, FC Command
B. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
C. FCF Discovery, PLOGI Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
D. VLAN Discovery, FCF Discovery, FLOG I/F Discovery
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
Which option is an open and extensible southbound protocol that supplies policy directly to data center networks?
A. OpFlex
B. vPath
C. VM-FEX
D. OpenDaylight
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
Which two descriptions of VXLAN are true? (Choose two.)
A. The VXLAN Identifier space is 24 bits.
B. VXLAN uses the Internet Protocol as the transport medium.
C. VXLAN adds 24 bytes of overhead to each packet.
D. VXLAN is primarily designed for small environments.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is a feature that improves the performance of software applications that run on the Cisco UCS servers in a data center by bypassing the kernel when sending and receiving networking packets? 210-451 dumps
A. A, vPath
B. VM-FEX
C. usNIC
D. VMware PassThrough
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
What are two characteristics of a LUN? (Choose two.)
A. A LUN must be fully comprised of one physical disk
B. A LUN handles file system creation
C. A LUN can be comprised of multiple physical disks
D. A LUN is a unique identifier
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Refer to the command line display below:
vsan database
vsan 1000 name FCoE
vlan 1000
fcoe vlan 1000
int e1/1
switchport mode trunk
switchport trunk allowed vlan 1000
no shut
int vfc10
bind interface e1/1
switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
no shut
On which line does the error occur that prevents FCoE from operating correctly in a Cisco Nexus switch?
A. fcoe vlan 1000
B. switchport trunk allowed vsan 1000
C. int vfc10
D. bind interface e1/1
Correct Answer: A

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November 8, 2017 by Cisco

[High Quality Cisco Dumps] Best Cisco 100-105 Dumps PDF Training Resources And VCE Youtube Update Free Try

Prepare for Cisco 100-105 exam with best Cisco ICND1 100-105 dumps pdf training resources and dumps vce youtube update free demo. leads4pass Cisco 100-105 dumps exam questions and answers are updated (332 Q&As) are verified by experts. “Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)” is the name of Cisco https://www.leads4pass.com/100-105.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. High quality Cisco ICND1 100-105 dumps pdf practice files and study guides update free try, pass Cisco 100-105 exam test easily.

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Vendor: Cisco
Certifications: ICND1
Exam Name: Cisco Interconnecting Cisco Networking Devices Part 1 (ICND1 v3.0)
Exam Code: 100-105
Total Questions: 332 Q&As
100-105 dumps
QUESTION 1
A receiving host has failed to receive all of the segments that it should acknowledge. What can the host do to improve the reliability of this communication session?
A. decrease the window size
B. use a different source port for the session
C. decrease the sequence number
D. obtain a new IP address from the DHCP server
E. start a new session using UDP
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Why would a network administrator configure port security on a switch?
A. to prevent unauthorized Telnet access to a switch port
B. to prevent unauthorized hosts from accessing the LAN
C. to limit the number of Layer 2 broadcasts on a particular switch port
D. block unauthorized access to the switch management interfaces
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
ROUTER# show ip route
192.168.12.0/24 is variably subnetted, 9 subnets, 3 masks
C 192.168.12.64 /28 is directly connected, Loopback1
C 192.168.12.32 /28 is directly connected, Ethernet0
C 192.168.12.48 /28 is directly connected, Loopback0
O 192.168.12.236 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
C 192.168.12.232 /30 is directly connected, Serial0 O 192.168.12.245 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
O 192.168.12.240 /30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial0
O 192.168.12.253 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0
O 192.168.12.249 /30 [110/782] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:37, Serial0
O 192.168.12.240/30 [110/128] via 192.168.12.233, 00:35:36, Serial 0
To what does the 128 refer to in the router output above?
A. OSPF cost
B. OSPF priority
C. OSPF hop count
D. OSPF ID number
E. OSPF administrative distance
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A problem with network connectivity has been observed. It is suspected that the cable connected to switch port Fa0/9 on Switch1 is disconnected. 100-105 dumps What would be an effect of this cable being disconnected?
A. Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9 until the cable is reconnected.
B. Communication between VLAN3 and the other VLANs would be disabled.
C. The transfer of files from Host B to the server in VLAN9 would be significantly slower.
D. For less than a minute, Host B would not be able to access the server in VLAN9. Then normal network function would resume.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A user cannot reach any web sites on the Internet, but others in the department are not having a problem.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. IP routing is not enabled.
B. The default gateway is not in the same subnet.
C. A DNS server address is not reachable by the PC.
D. A DHCP server address is not reachable by the PC.
E. NAT has not been configured on the router that connects to the Internet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
Which two of these statements are true of IPv6 address representation? (Choose two.)
A. There are four types of IPv6 addresses: unicast, multicast, anycast, and broadcast.
B. A single interface may be assigned multiple IPv6 addresses of any type.
C. Every IPv6 interface contains at least one loopback address.
D. The first 64 bits represent the dynamically created interface ID.
E. Leading zeros in an IPv6 16 bit hexadecimal field are mandatory.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 7
Which statements are TRUE regarding Internet Protocol version 6 (IPv6) addresses? (Choose three.)
A. An IPv6 address is divided into eight 16-bit groups.
B. A double colon (::) can only be used once in a single IPv6 address.
C. IPv6 addresses are 196 bits in length.
D. Leading zeros cannot be omitted in an IPv6 address.
E. Groups with a value of 0 can be represented with a single 0 in IPv6 address.
Correct Answer: ABE

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
A network administrator is troubleshooting a connectivity problem on the serial interfaces. The output from the show interfaces command on both routers shows that the serial interface is up, line protocol is down.
Given the partial output for the show running-config in the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of this problem?
A. The serial cable is bad.
B. The MTU is incorrectly configured.
C. The Layer 2 framing is misconfigured.
D. The IP addresses are not in the same subnet.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.
100-105 dumps
Serial 0/0 does not respond to a ping request from a host on the FastEthernet 0/0 LAN.
How can this problem be corrected?
A. Enable the Serial 0/0 interface.
B. Correct the IP address for Serial 0/0.
C. Correct the IP address for FastEthernet 0/0
D. Change the encapsulation type on Serial 0/0
E. Enable autoconfiguration on the Serial 0/0 interface
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
What is one requirement for interfaces to run IPv6? 100-105 dumps
A. An IPv6 address must be configured on the interface.
B. An IPv4 address must be configured.
C. Stateless autoconfiguration must be enabled after enabling IPv6 on the interface.
D. IPv6 must be enabled with the ipv6 enable command in global configuration mode.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
Which two statements describe the process identifier that is used in the command to configure OSPF on a router? (Choose two.)
Router(config)# router ospf 1
A. All OSPF routers in an area must have the same process ID.
B. Only one process number can be used on the same router.
C. Different process identifiers can be used to run multiple OSPF processes
D. The process number can be any number from 1 to 65,535.
E. Hello packets are sent to each neighbor to determine the processor identifier.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 12
Some routers have been configured with default routes. What are some of the advantages of using default routes? (Choose two)
A. They establish routes that will never go down.
B. They keep routing tables small.
C. They require a great deal of CPU power.
D. They allow connectivity to remote networks that are not in the routing table
E. They direct traffic from the internet into corporate networks.
Correct Answer: BD

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October 31, 2017 by Cisco
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